ATI RN
Target Healthcare Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which statement by a patient with an eating disorder reflects a correct understanding of the condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges the emotional aspect of eating disorders. Coping with feelings by overeating indicates insight into using food to manage emotions, a common characteristic of eating disorders. This understanding is crucial for addressing the underlying issues contributing to the disorder. A: Incorrect. This statement suggests an extreme and distorted view of weight gain, which is not reflective of a healthy understanding of an eating disorder. B: Incorrect. This statement implies a fixation on a specific size for happiness, which may perpetuate disordered eating behaviors. D: Incorrect. This statement indicates reliance on binging as the sole coping mechanism, overlooking the emotional aspect of the disorder.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with bipolar disorder has rapid cycles. To prepare teaching materials, the nurse anticipates which medication will be prescribed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is commonly used in treating rapid cycling bipolar disorder due to its mood stabilizing properties. It helps regulate mood swings and prevent manic or depressive episodes. It is effective in managing rapid cycling symptoms. Clonidine (A) is used for ADHD and hypertension, not bipolar disorder. Phenytoin (B) is an anticonvulsant, not typically used for bipolar disorder. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic mainly for schizophrenia, not specifically indicated for rapid cycling in bipolar disorder.
Question 3 of 5
Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for both a patient with depression and one with acute mania?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed sleep pattern. Both depression and acute mania can disrupt sleep, leading to negative impacts on overall health. Sleep disturbances can exacerbate symptoms of both conditions and hinder recovery. Addressing sleep patterns is crucial in managing symptoms and improving outcomes for patients with depression and acute mania. A: Deficient diversional activity is more relevant to depression than acute mania, as patients with mania often engage in excessive activities. C: Fluid volume excess is not typically associated with depression or acute mania. D: Defensive coping may be relevant to both conditions but is not a priority compared to addressing sleep patterns for patient safety and symptom management.
Question 4 of 5
A client tried to gouge out his eye in response to auditory hallucinations commanding, 'If thine eye offend thee, pluck it out.' The nurse would analyze this behavior as indicating:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired impulse control. This behavior shows a lack of control over impulsive actions, as the client acted immediately on the auditory hallucination without considering the consequences. Choice B is incorrect because anger management is not directly related here. Choice C, derealization, refers to feeling disconnected from reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice D, inappropriate affect, does not fit as the client's action is more about impulsivity than emotional expression. Ultimately, the client's behavior aligns most closely with impaired impulse control due to the immediate and extreme response to the auditory hallucination.
Question 5 of 5
During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin (SHT2) excess will suggest that the client receive:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is the correct choice because it is an atypical antipsychotic that targets serotonin receptors, particularly 5-HT2 receptors known to be involved in negative symptoms of schizophrenia like apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. Olanzapine's mechanism of action helps alleviate these symptoms by modulating serotonin levels in the brain. Incorrect Choices: A: Haloperidol and B: Chlorpromazine are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors and are less effective in treating negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia. D: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia symptoms related to serotonin excess.