ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves verifying the accuracy and consistency of data by comparing it with other reliable sources. This ensures that the data is correct and reliable for analysis. Choice A is incorrect because data validation typically occurs after data collection, which is followed by data interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because validation is not about professional standards but about verifying data accuracy. Choice D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on deriving meaning and insights from data, not on professional standards. In summary, understanding the differences between data validation and interpretation is crucial for ensuring data accuracy and reliability.
Question 2 of 9
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
Question 3 of 9
At health fair, an oncology nurse answers questions about risk factors for various types of cancer. One person with a family history of colon cancer asks the nurse to identify risk factors for this type of cancer. The nurse should identify:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In acute Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone, leading to electrolyte imbalances. This results in increased potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to lack of aldosterone to promote potassium excretion. Hypernatremia (choice B) is less likely as aldosterone deficiency leads to sodium loss. Reduced BUN (choice C) is unlikely as Addison's crisis does not directly affect urea levels. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is not typically seen in Addisonian crisis as cortisol deficiency usually results in hypoglycemia.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An adrenal adenoma. Adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn's syndrome. Adrenal adenomas are benign tumors that cause overproduction of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion. This results in hypertension and hypokalemia. Excessive sodium intake (A) and deficient potassium intake (B) are not direct causes of hyperaldosteronism. A pituitary adenoma (C) is associated with other hormone imbalances, such as Cushing's syndrome or acromegaly, but not hyperaldosteronism.
Question 6 of 9
A client is admitted for postoperative assessment and recovery after surgery for a kidney tumor. The nurse needs to assess for signs of urinary tract infection. Which of the ff measures can be used to help detect UTI?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor temperature every 4hrs. This is crucial in detecting signs of urinary tract infection as fever is a common symptom. Monitoring temperature regularly allows for early detection and appropriate intervention. A: Encouraging the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs is a measure to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively, not related to UTI detection. C: Splinting the incision when repositioning the client is important for wound care, not for detecting UTI. D: Irrigating tubes as ordered is a specific intervention for tube care, not for monitoring UTI symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse should include in the patient’s teaching plan that if the patient does not take the vitamin B12, which one of the following will develop?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of red blood cells, and its deficiency can lead to pernicious anemia, characterized by decreased red blood cell production. Without adequate vitamin B12, the body cannot properly utilize iron, leading to anemia. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is a result of insufficient iron levels, not vitamin B12 deficiency. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin, not related to vitamin B12 deficiency. Acquired haemolytic anemia (choice D) is caused by the premature destruction of red blood cells, not by vitamin B12 deficiency.
Question 8 of 9
To supplement a diet with foods high in potassium, the nurse should recommend the addition of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fruits such as bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which is essential for various bodily functions like muscle contractions and maintaining fluid balance. Fruits are a natural source of potassium and are easily incorporated into the diet. Milk and yogurt (B) are good sources of calcium, not potassium. Green leafy vegetables (C) are nutritious but may not provide as much potassium as fruits. Nuts and legumes (D) are good sources of protein and healthy fats but are not as rich in potassium as fruits like bananas.
Question 9 of 9
Which action indicates the nurse is using a PICOT question to improve care for a patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using a PICOT question involves formulating a research question to guide evidence-based practice. B indicates the nurse is implementing interventions based on scientific research, aligning with the PICOT framework (Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Timeframe). This approach ensures that care decisions are supported by the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because practicing nursing based on court evidence does not align with the PICOT framework. Choice C is incorrect as using standardized care plans for all patients may not consider individual patient needs and preferences as required in a PICOT question. Choice D is incorrect as planning care based on tradition does not involve integrating current research evidence as in the PICOT approach.