Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves comparing data with other sources to ensure accuracy. This process helps in identifying any discrepancies or errors in the data. By cross-referencing with other sources, the nurse can verify the correctness of the data. Rationale: 1. Data validation checks the accuracy of the data by comparing it with external sources. 2. Data interpretation involves analyzing and making sense of the data, not comparing it with other sources. 3. Option A is incorrect because data validation typically comes after data collection and precedes data interpretation. 4. Option B is incorrect as validation does not specifically involve looking for patterns in professional standards. 5. Option D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on understanding trends and insights from the data, not patterns in professional standards.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring the client's temperature before, during, and after the transfusion allows the nurse to identify any changes or trends that may indicate a complication related to the blood transfusion. This comprehensive monitoring helps differentiate between a normal body response to cold blood infusion and a potential adverse reaction. Choice B is incorrect because documenting the client's temperature only after the transfusion may miss important changes during the process. Choice C is incorrect as the temperature of the blood before transfusion does not directly indicate the client's response to the chilled blood. Choice D is incorrect as comparing the client's temperature with the temperature of the blood alone does not provide a complete picture of the client's condition throughout the transfusion process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. Rationale: 1. Latex condoms create a physical barrier that helps prevent the exchange of bodily fluids containing HIV. 2. Spermicide can further reduce the risk of HIV transmission by killing some viruses and bacteria. 3. Research shows that consistent and correct use of condoms is highly effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - A: Unprotected sex between HIV-positive individuals can lead to the transmission of drug-resistant strains or different strains of HIV. - C: Contraceptive methods like birth control pills do not protect against HIV transmission. - D: The intrauterine device is not specifically recommended for clients with HIV due to potential risks of infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the registered nurse. This is the best course of action as the LPN should escalate the situation to a higher level of care by involving the registered nurse who can further assess the patient's concerns and provide appropriate interventions. A. Reassuring the patient may not address the underlying fear and may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety. B. Providing statistics about surgery death rates may further escalate the patient's fears and anxiety, causing more harm than good. D. Involving the family to comfort the patient may not address the patient's specific concerns and may not be within the family's scope of understanding or expertise to effectively address the situation. Informing the registered nurse allows for a more comprehensive assessment and appropriate intervention to address the patient's fears and concerns in a holistic manner.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because during the evaluation phase of nursing care for a client with COPD, the nurse should review the client's progress toward meeting the goals set during the planning phase. This involves assessing whether the interventions implemented are effective in improving the client's condition and if the goals are being achieved. This step is crucial in determining the overall effectiveness of the care provided and making any necessary adjustments to the plan. A: Documenting interventions is important but not the primary focus during the evaluation phase. C: Delegating further care is not typically done during the evaluation phase as it is more about assessing the current care plan. D: Ensuring compliance with physician orders is important but does not encompass the holistic evaluation of the client's progress towards goals.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Redness of the upper part of the feet. During lymphangiography, a contrast dye is injected into the lymphatic vessels. This may cause temporary redness in the upper part of the feet due to the dye spreading throughout the lymphatic system. Purplish stools (A), bluish urine (C), and coldness of the soles (D) are not expected side effects of lymphangiography and do not have a direct correlation with the procedure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate