ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which statement best explains drugs like methylphenidate help a patient with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methylphenidate boosts dopamine in prefrontal cortex, enhancing focus/attention in ADHD-per neuroscience-not blocking PNS, reducing levels, or deactivating areas. Activation explains efficacy, per mechanism.
Question 2 of 5
All of the following are eicosanoids, except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bradykinin is not an eicosanoid. Eicosanoids are signaling molecules derived from arachidonic acid or other polyunsaturated fatty acids, including prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes. Bradykinin, on the other hand, is a peptide that functions as a mediator of inflammation and pain by promoting vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability.
Question 3 of 5
A 57-year-old man with a history of intermittent angina normally takes sublingual nitroglycerin when attacks occur. He states that he does not take this medication because it makes him feel 'funny... itch uncontrollably... and have pain radiating to his toes.' These symptoms have never been witnessed by his family members who are with him all the time. What is the best course of action for the treating physician to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unusual nitroglycerin reactions (itching, toe pain) unwitnessed by family suggest noncompliance or psychogenic issues. Encourage use and explore reasons . Psychiatric or behavioral consults are premature. Switching or antipsychotics (E) ignores clarification. This approach ensures proper angina management.
Question 4 of 5
Which classification of drugs would the nurse refuse to administer to a pregnant patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Teratogenic drugs (e.g., thalidomide) cause fetal harm, absolute no-go in pregnancy, per safety. Category A is safe (e.g., levothyroxine). Category B has no human risk (e.g., metformin). ‘Cautionary' isn't a class-teratogenic fits X or known risks. Refusing teratogens protects the fetus, a clear rule.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is considered to be the most potent and, thus, have the highest risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluphenazine, a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic, strongly blocks D2 receptors, requiring lower doses for efficacy but increasing EPS risk (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism) due to intense dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine, low-potency first-generation drugs, have weaker D2 affinity, causing more sedation and anticholinergic effects than EPS. Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has low D2 potency and minimal EPS. Clozapine avoids EPS with broad receptor activity. Fluphenazine's potency, measured by dose equivalence and clinical data, correlates with its elevated EPS risk, distinguishing it here.