ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which statement best explains drugs like methylphenidate help a patient with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A 57-year-old man with a history of intermittent angina normally takes sublingual nitroglycerin when attacks occur. He states that he does not take this medication because it makes him feel 'funny... itch uncontrollably... and have pain radiating to his toes.' These symptoms have never been witnessed by his family members who are with him all the time. What is the best course of action for the treating physician to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unusual nitroglycerin reactions (itching, toe pain) unwitnessed by family suggest noncompliance or psychogenic issues. Encourage use and explore reasons . Psychiatric or behavioral consults are premature. Switching or antipsychotics (E) ignores clarification. This approach ensures proper angina management.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of seasonal allergies. She has done well without medications for some time but now has worsening of her symptoms. She is given a prescription for fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse effects must be considered in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is considered to be the most potent and, thus, have the highest risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluphenazine, a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic, strongly blocks D2 receptors, requiring lower doses for efficacy but increasing EPS risk (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism) due to intense dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine, low-potency first-generation drugs, have weaker D2 affinity, causing more sedation and anticholinergic effects than EPS. Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has low D2 potency and minimal EPS. Clozapine avoids EPS with broad receptor activity. Fluphenazine's potency, measured by dose equivalence and clinical data, correlates with its elevated EPS risk, distinguishing it here.
Question 5 of 5
The client receives diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to control allergic symptoms. Which common symptom does the nurse teach the client to report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine, a first-generation antihistamine, has anticholinergic effects, including urinary hesitancy , due to reduced bladder contractility. This can escalate to retention, a serious issue, especially in older adults or those with prostate issues, warranting physician reporting. Sedation is expected and manageable, not typically reported unless severe. Diarrhea isn't common; constipation is more likely. Projectile vomiting suggests a different pathology, not a typical antihistamine effect. The nurse teaches reporting urinary hesitancy as it's a significant anticholinergic complication requiring intervention, making choice D the priority symptom to monitor.