ATI RN
Disorders of the Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which statement best describes Zidovudine:
Correct Answer: zidovudine diphosphate
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form (zidovudine diphosphate). Zidovudine itself is a prodrug that needs to be metabolized by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which inhibits HIV replication by acting as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This active form is essential for its antiretroviral activity. Incorrect Choices: A: Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection - This is incorrect because zidovudine is commonly used in combination with other antiretrovirals as a first-line treatment for HIV infection, not as an alternative treatment. B: Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her fetus and to treat AIDS-related dementia - This is incorrect because zidovudine is primarily used in
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following semisynthetic penicillins which has an extended spectrum of activity against many gram negative bacilli, is acid resistant but not penicillinase resistant?:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amoxicillin. This penicillin has an extended spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacilli, making it effective against a wider range of bacteria. It is acid-resistant, allowing it to be taken orally, but it is not penicillinase-resistant, meaning it can be easily degraded by beta-lactamase enzymes. A: Cloxacillin is penicillinase-resistant but does not have an extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli. C: Phenoxymethyl penicillin is not acid-resistant and does not have an extended spectrum against gram-negative bacilli. D: Piperacillin has an extended spectrum of activity but is not acid-resistant and is susceptible to penicillinase.
Question 3 of 5
A 70 year old man requires treatment with an alpha-blocker for overflow incontinence due to enlarged prostate. Which of the following alpha blocking drugs is most appropriate drug to prescribe that will not affect his blood pressure significantly?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tamsulosin. It is the most appropriate alpha-blocker for the elderly man with enlarged prostate and overflow incontinence because of its selective action on alpha-1A receptors in the prostate, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle without significantly affecting blood pressure. Rationale: 1. Prazosin (Choice A) and Terazosin (Choice D) are non-selective alpha-blockers that can cause significant blood pressure lowering due to their action on alpha-1 receptors in blood vessels, which may not be suitable for this patient. 2. Phentolamine (Choice B) is also a non-selective alpha-blocker that can lead to significant blood pressure reduction, making it unsuitable for this patient. 3. Tamsulosin (Choice C) is a selective alpha-1A blocker, primarily acting on the prostate, with minimal impact on blood pressure, making it the most appropriate choice for this patient.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with severe infectious disease is being treated with aminoglycoside antibiotics. Which of the following diuretic should be avoided for this patient because of the serious side effect shared by both drugs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Furosemide. Aminoglycoside antibiotics can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, also has the potential to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Therefore, combining aminoglycosides with furosemide can increase the risk of these serious side effects. B: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides. C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and does not have the same side effects as aminoglycosides. D: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic and does not share the same severe side effects as aminoglycosides.
Question 5 of 5
Intravenous Plain NSS infusion is the treatment of choice for the following complications of furosemide therapy:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe dehydration. Intravenous Plain NSS (Normal Saline Solution) infusion is the treatment of choice for severe dehydration due to its ability to rapidly restore fluid and electrolyte balance. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Plain NSS helps replenish lost fluids and electrolytes quickly. Rationale for other choices: A: Hypokalemia - Furosemide can cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion, but treatment involves potassium supplementation or potassium-sparing diuretics, not NSS infusion. C: Dilutional hyponatremia - Furosemide can lead to dilutional hyponatremia by causing excessive water retention, but treatment focuses on fluid restriction and correcting underlying causes, not NSS infusion. D: None of the above - This is incorrect as NSS infusion is indicated for severe dehydration in furosemide therapy.