Which statement about the epidemiology and specific prophylactic of Haemophilus influenzae is NOT CORRECT?

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Question 1 of 9

Which statement about the epidemiology and specific prophylactic of Haemophilus influenzae is NOT CORRECT?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because there is no effective killed vaccine that is protective against all capsular types of Haemophilus spp. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine primarily targets specific capsular types, not all of them. Choice A is incorrect because non-encapsulated strains can indeed be isolated from healthy carriers. Choice C is incorrect as Haemophilus influenzae is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets, not through the air. Choice D is not correct because Choice B is indeed incorrect, making it the right answer.

Question 2 of 9

The role of adhesins in gram positive bacteria is carried out by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.

Question 3 of 9

All of the following are ways the kidney are used for urine formation and drug clearance except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tubular filtration. The kidney does not perform tubular filtration as a method for urine formation and drug clearance. The process of urine formation involves filtration, secretion, and reabsorption. Filtration occurs at the glomerulus, where blood is filtered to form the initial filtrate. Tubular secretion involves the active transport of substances from the blood into the renal tubules to be eliminated in urine. Tubular reabsorption is the process of reclaiming useful substances from the filtrate back into the blood. Therefore, tubular filtration is not a valid process in urine formation and drug clearance, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are essential processes in urine formation and drug clearance.

Question 4 of 9

When microorganisms enter the circulatory system through the lymphatic drainage and cause an infection, the condition is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: microbemia. When microorganisms enter the circulatory system via the lymphatic drainage, the condition is specifically termed microbemia. This term focuses on the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream. Rationale: 1. Bacteremia (choice A) refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, not specifically microorganisms as a whole. 2. Septicemia (choice B) is a severe infection causing systemic inflammation due to the presence of pathogens or their toxins in the blood, not limited to microorganisms entering via lymphatic drainage. 3. Viremia (choice D) is the presence of viruses in the bloodstream, not a term used for microorganisms entering through the lymphatic drainage. In summary, the term microbemia accurately describes the scenario of microorganisms entering the circulatory system through lymphatic drainage, making it the correct choice over the other options.

Question 5 of 9

A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this case is Staphylococcus epidermidis. This conclusion can be drawn based on the characteristics provided: Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria. Explanation of other choices: - Staphylococcus aureus: Typically coagulase-positive, so it does not match the characteristics given. - Streptococcus pyogenes: Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Also, it is catalase-negative. - Enterococcus faecalis: Gram-positive cocci in pairs or chains, not clusters. Additionally, it is catalase-negative. Therefore, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent based on the provided characteristics.

Question 6 of 9

A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Question 7 of 9

The bacterial genome is typically composed of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: circular double-stranded DNA. Bacterial genomes are typically composed of circular double-stranded DNA due to its stability and efficient replication. Circular DNA allows for continuous replication without the need for telomeres present in linear DNA (choice B). Bacteria do not typically have double-stranded RNA genomes (choice A) as RNA is more commonly found in viruses. Single-stranded DNA (choice D) is not typically the main genetic material in bacteria, as it is less stable and less efficient for information storage compared to double-stranded DNA.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following viruses belong to the family Herpesviridae?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A: Epstein-Barr virus): 1. Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, known for causing infectious mononucleosis. 2. Members of Herpesviridae have double-stranded DNA genomes and enveloped virions. 3. They establish latent infections in host cells and can reactivate periodically. 4. Poxvirus (B) belongs to the Poxviridae family, not Herpesviridae. 5. SARS (C) is caused by a coronavirus, not a herpesvirus. 6. HIV (D) belongs to the Retroviridae family, not Herpesviridae. Summary: The correct answer is A because Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the Herpesviridae family, exhibiting specific characteristics distinct from the other choices.

Question 9 of 9

Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.

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