ATI RN
Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which statement about the concept of neuroses is most accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neurosis involves feelings of distress and anxiety, but individuals experiencing neurosis are usually aware of their distress and its causes. They may recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive and are generally in contact with reality. The accurate statement about neurosis is that an individual feels helpless to change their situation. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with neurosis are usually aware of their distress. Choice C is incorrect because while individuals may be aware of psychological causes, it is not the defining characteristic of neurosis. Choice D is incorrect because a loss of contact with reality is more characteristic of psychosis, not neurosis.
Question 2 of 9
During an assessment of a client with suspected substance use disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that doesn't apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In clients with substance use disorder, common findings include increased tolerance to the substance, withdrawal symptoms when not using it, and unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use. Feelings of hopelessness are not typically a direct manifestation of substance use disorder. Instead, feelings of hopelessness may be associated with other mental health conditions or situational factors. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are all expected findings in clients with substance use disorder.
Question 3 of 9
A student finds that they come down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The student is most likely experiencing the stage of exhaustion. In this stage, the body's exposure to stress has been prolonged, and adaptive energy has been depleted. As a result, diseases of adaptation, such as the recurrent sinus infection in this case, are more likely to occur. The alarm reaction stage is the initial stage of the stress response, where the body perceives a threat and activates the fight-or-flight response. The stage of resistance is when the body tries to adapt and cope with the stressor. The fight-or-flight response is the immediate reaction to a perceived threat, involving physiological changes to prepare the body to either fight the stressor or flee from it.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is planning care for a client with borderline personality disorder. Which of the following interventions should not be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, it is essential to set clear and consistent boundaries, use a firm, authoritative approach, and provide opportunities for the client to express feelings. Encouraging dependency can reinforce maladaptive behaviors, while avoiding discussing feelings can hinder therapeutic progress in addressing underlying issues. Building a sense of dependency may exacerbate the client's difficulties in developing autonomy and self-reliance, which are crucial for their progress and recovery. Therefore, encouraging dependency is not a recommended intervention in the plan of care for clients with borderline personality disorder.
Question 5 of 9
When an individual uses the defense mechanism of displacement after the boss openly disagrees with suggestions, what behavior would be expected from this individual?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The individual using the defense mechanism of displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target, hence the individual criticizing a coworker instead of directly confronting the boss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the individual is not likely to assertively confront the boss when using displacement. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the meeting to work out in the gym is not a typical response when displacement is used. Choice D is incorrect as taking the boss out to lunch does not align with the concept of displacement, which involves redirecting emotions onto another target.
Question 6 of 9
During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the healthcare professional's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The healthcare professional should educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. Understanding the interconnectedness of physical and mental health is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects. Choice B is wrong as it doesn't provide relevant information about the impact of psychological factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because skipping questions would lead to an incomplete assessment, potentially missing crucial information affecting the client's overall health outcomes.
Question 7 of 9
During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.
Question 8 of 9
A client is under a great deal of stress. Which nursing recommendation would be least helpful in assisting the client in coping with stress? Select one that doesn't apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Focusing on the stressors can exacerbate stress levels in the client's life rather than helping to cope with it. Engaging in activities such as enjoying a pet, spending time with loved ones, and listening to music are known to be stress-relieving and can aid in coping with stress. It is essential to encourage strategies that promote relaxation and positive emotions, rather than fixating on the stressors that may worsen the client's condition. Therefore, 'Focus on the stressors' is the least helpful recommendation as it does not contribute to stress management.
Question 9 of 9
Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.