ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which statement about ARBs does the nurse identify as being true?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause cough compared to ACE inhibitors. However, one of the notable adverse effects associated with ARBs is hyperkalemia. ARBs can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood more so than ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the nurse should recognize that hyperkalemia is more likely to occur with ARBs than when using ACE inhibitors.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is taking levofloxacin. What does the nurse know to be true regarding this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic available in both oral and intravenous forms. It is not classified as an aminoglycoside. A well-documented adverse effect of fluoroquinolones is tendon rupture, particularly in older adults and those on corticosteroid therapy. Hypertension is not a common side effect of levofloxacin. Patients should be advised to report any tendon pain or swelling immediately.
Question 3 of 5
The patient receives aspirin. The nurse assesses an adverse effect to this drug when the patient makes which response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin, an NSAID, inhibits platelet aggregation and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, leading to dark, tarry stools (melena) from upper GI hemorrhage . This adverse effect requires urgent assessment, as it signals potential internal bleeding, a serious complication. Nasal stuffiness isn't linked to aspirin unless related to an allergic reaction (rare). Headaches from lights suggest photophobia, unrelated to aspirin's effects. Frequent urination isn't a typical side effect. The nurse identifies dark stools as a critical sign of aspirin's impact on gastric mucosa and coagulation, necessitating intervention, making choice A the correct adverse effect to assess.
Question 4 of 5
The client comes to the emergency department with a myocardial infarction. The client's husband tells the nurse that his wife has been taking calcium carbonate (Tums) for years for what she thought was indigestion. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Self-diagnosing with Tums masked a myocardial infarction as indigestion, a common misstep, and noting this educates without blame. Blaming the wife or husband is judgmental and unhelpful. Gladness she's there misses teaching opportunity. Stating self-diagnosis's risks highlights the need for medical evaluation, especially in older adults where cardiac symptoms mimic gastrointestinal issues, fostering awareness gently.
Question 5 of 5
A patient who is severely anemic also has acute heart failure with severe edema due to fluid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are the most appropriate blood product for a severely anemic patient who needs an increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. PRBC transfusions provide a concentrated dose of red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. This can help address the anemia and improve symptoms related to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, such as fatigue and weakness. Fresh frozen plasma, albumin, and whole blood do not specifically target the anemia in this scenario and are not the primary choice for raising hemoglobin and hematocrit levels in a patient with severe anemia and acute heart failure.