Which staining method is used for proving the formation of spores

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microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which staining method is used for proving the formation of spores

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Moeller. Moeller staining method is specifically designed to detect spores due to its ability to differentiate between the spore and the vegetative cell. It involves applying multiple stains such as malachite green, safranin, and heat to visualize the endospore structure. This method is essential for proving the formation of spores as it highlights the resistant spore structures within the bacterial cell. A: Klett and Gins is not used for spore staining. B: Ziehl-Neelsen is used for acid-fast staining, not spore staining. C: Gram and Loeffler's are used for gram staining, not spore staining.

Question 2 of 9

Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

Question 3 of 9

Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.

Question 4 of 9

What are the two main targets currently used in anti-HIV therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reverse transcriptase and protease. Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA, a crucial step in viral replication. Protease is responsible for cleaving viral polyproteins into functional proteins. Targeting both enzymes disrupts viral replication. Choice A is incorrect as integrase is not a main target in current therapy. Choice C is incorrect because protease is targeted along with reverse transcriptase, not integrase. Choice D is incorrect as targeting viral glycoproteins is not a main strategy in anti-HIV therapy.

Question 5 of 9

Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Question 6 of 9

During bacteriological examination of sputum of a child with choking cough and fever there were revealed glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar and reminding of mercury drops. Microscopic examination revealed short Gram-negative bacteria. What microorganism was secured from the sputum?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. Glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar resembling mercury drops indicate Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough. The presence of short Gram-negative bacteria further supports this identification. Option B, Haemophilus influenzae, typically grows as small, round, translucent colonies on chocolate agar. Option C, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, forms gray colonies on tellurite agar. Option D, Klebsiella pneumoniae, appears as mucoid colonies on MacConkey agar.

Question 7 of 9

A bacteriological analysis revealed spore-forming, Gram-positive rods in a wound smear. The bacteria were motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Spore-forming, Gram-positive rods: Characteristics shared by Clostridium and Bacillus. 2. Motile and gas production in nutrient broth: Clostridium perfringens is motile and produces gas, distinguishing it from Bacillus species. 3. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, correlating with gas production. 4. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not related to wound infections. 5. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not associated with gas production. 6. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not commonly associated with wound infections. Summary: - A is correct (Clostridium perfringens) due to motility, gas production, and wound infection correlation. - B (Bacillus anthracis) causes anthrax, not wound infections. - C (Clostridium tetani) causes tetanus, not gas production. - D (B

Question 8 of 9

What drug is more advisable for the patient with amebic dysentery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery as it effectively targets the protozoa causing the infection. It has good tissue penetration and high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Pyrantel (B) is used for nematode infections, not amebiasis. Levamisole (C) is an anthelmintic for roundworms and not effective against amoebas. Bicillin-5 (D) is a penicillin antibiotic, which is not indicated for treating amebic dysentery.

Question 9 of 9

The specific antidote to botulinum toxin is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: antitoxin. Antitoxin is the specific antidote to botulinum toxin as it helps neutralize the toxin in the body. Sodium bicarbonate (A) is used to treat acidosis, pralidoxime (C) is used for organophosphate poisoning, and naloxone (D) is used for opioid overdose. Antitoxin directly targets and counteracts the botulinum toxin, making it the appropriate antidote in cases of botulism.

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