Which stage of male genital development is characterized by initial enlargement of the penis?

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Question 1 of 5

Which stage of male genital development is characterized by initial enlargement of the penis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In male genital development, the correct answer is C) Stage 3. This stage is characterized by the initial enlargement of the penis. During Stage 3, boys typically experience rapid growth and development of the genitalia, including the enlargement of the penis. This stage is also marked by the development of pubic hair and testicular enlargement. Option A) Stage 1 is incorrect because this stage is characterized by prepubertal genitalia without significant changes. Option B) Stage 2 is incorrect as it represents the beginning of testicular enlargement but not the initial enlargement of the penis. Option D) Stage 4 is incorrect as it corresponds to further growth and maturation of the genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics after the initial enlargement of the penis in Stage 3. Understanding the stages of male genital development is crucial in both clinical practice and education, especially in areas such as pediatric endocrinology and adolescent health. Recognizing the normal progression of male genital development aids healthcare providers in assessing and monitoring the growth and maturation of boys, identifying potential abnormalities, and providing appropriate health promotion and maintenance interventions.

Question 2 of 5

Which question should a nurse ask a 26-year-old individual being screened for depression or suicide ideation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct question for a nurse to ask a 26-year-old individual being screened for depression or suicide ideation is option C: “Have you thought of harming yourself?” This question is crucial as it directly addresses the issue of suicidal ideation, which is essential to assess for in individuals who may be experiencing depression or distress. Option A, asking about pets, is not as pertinent to screening for depression or suicide ideation. Option B, inquiring about work, although important, does not directly assess for suicidal thoughts. Option D, asking about seeing friends, is also not as directly related to screening for suicidal ideation. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to understand the significance of directly addressing the issue of suicidal ideation in their assessments. Suicide is a serious concern, especially in individuals with depression, and early detection through appropriate questioning can lead to timely interventions and potentially life-saving support for the individual. Nurses need to be trained to ask direct and sensitive questions related to mental health to provide holistic care to their patients.

Question 3 of 5

Which statement is most appropriate when discussing a woman concerned about osteoporosis and menopause?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate statement when discussing a woman concerned about osteoporosis and menopause is option D, “Tell me about your diet, walking, and medications.” This response is the correct choice because it demonstrates patient-centered care by actively engaging the woman in discussing relevant factors that can impact her bone health. Option A, “The American diet is much better now,” is incorrect because it does not address the individual woman's specific risk factors or provide actionable advice for managing her osteoporosis risk. Option B, “You have a strong genetic risk factor,” while important to consider, does not encourage the woman to take an active role in her health or provide her with guidance on preventive measures she can take. Option C, “You need about 1000 mg of calcium a day,” is oversimplified and does not take into account the multifactorial nature of osteoporosis risk, which includes factors beyond just calcium intake. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to engage patients in discussions about their health, empower them to take an active role in disease prevention, and tailor recommendations to individual risk factors and lifestyle choices. By encouraging open dialogue and considering the holistic healthcare needs of the patient, providers can better support women in managing their bone health during menopause.

Question 4 of 5

A 62-year-old person reports difficulty with peripheral vision. Which disorder is likely?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the likely disorder the 62-year-old person is experiencing is glaucoma (Option B). Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure leading to damage of the optic nerve and peripheral vision loss. This is a common condition in older adults and can lead to irreversible vision loss if not detected and managed promptly. Presbyopia (Option A) is a normal age-related change where the lens loses its flexibility, leading to difficulty focusing on close objects, but it does not cause peripheral vision loss. Cataracts (Option C) involve clouding of the lens in the eye, which can cause blurred vision, but typically does not present as peripheral vision loss unless in advanced stages. Diabetic retinopathy (Option D) is a complication of diabetes affecting the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision problems such as blurred vision, but it is not typically associated with peripheral vision loss as the primary symptom. Understanding the distinctions between these eye disorders is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in the context of health promotion and maintenance. Regular eye exams, especially for older adults, can aid in early detection and appropriate management of these conditions to prevent irreversible vision impairment. Encouraging individuals to seek routine eye care as part of their overall health maintenance can help in the early identification and management of eye disorders like glaucoma.

Question 5 of 5

Osteoporosis risk: Who is at risk?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, option A is the correct answer. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by decreased bone density, leading to increased bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures. Chronic use of corticosteroids like prednisone can significantly increase the risk of osteoporosis due to their negative effects on bone mineral density. This is because corticosteroids interfere with calcium absorption and bone formation, predisposing individuals to osteoporosis. Options B, C, and D are incorrect. Option B, a 40-year-old woman who works as a secretary, is less likely to be at high risk for osteoporosis compared to a person on chronic corticosteroid therapy. Similarly, option C, a 60-year-old woman who walks three miles a day, and option D, a 50-year-old man who works as a mason, do not have significant risk factors for osteoporosis based on the information provided. Educationally, understanding the risk factors for osteoporosis is crucial for healthcare providers to identify individuals who may benefit from early screening, preventive measures, and appropriate interventions to mitigate the risk of developing this debilitating condition. It is essential to educate patients, especially those on long-term corticosteroid therapy, about the importance of bone health, calcium intake, weight-bearing exercises, and lifestyle modifications to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and its associated complications.

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