ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which side effect is commonly associated with albuterol use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a beta2-adrenergic agonist that primarily acts on beta2 receptors in the lungs to cause bronchodilation. However, it can also stimulate beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (tachycardia). This is a commonly observed side effect of albuterol use. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with albuterol use due to its beta-adreergic agonist activity. Weight gain (C) is not a common side effect of albuterol and is more commonly associated with other medications. Hypoglycemia (D) is not a typical side effect of albuterol use, as it does not directly affect blood sugar levels.
Question 2 of 5
A 70-year-old patient with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. Clonidine works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the release of norepinephrine in the brainstem. Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that works by inhibiting norepinephrine release in the brainstem, leading to decreased sympathetic outflow and ultimately reducing blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clonidine does not act by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, promoting vasodilation by inhibiting calcium channels, or increasing the excretion of sodium and water in the kidneys. The primary mechanism of clonidine's antihypertensive effect lies in its action on norepinephrine release in the brainstem.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. Fluticasone is classified as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A corticosteroid. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is crucial in managing asthma. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of asthma treatment as they help to decrease airway inflammation and prevent asthma symptoms. Choice A, a beta-agonist, is incorrect because beta-agonists work by relaxing the muscles around the airways and are usually used as rescue inhalers for quick relief of asthma symptoms. Choice C, a leukotriene modifier, is incorrect as leukotriene modifiers work by blocking the action of certain immune system chemicals that cause asthma symptoms, but they are not the classification for fluticasone. Choice D, an anticholinergic agent, is incorrect as anticholinergics work by blocking acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes airway constriction, and are typically used in conditions like COPD, not as the
Question 4 of 5
This graph illustrates the dose-response relationship for the effect of the beta agonist isoproterenol on an isolated perfused heart, both alone and in the presence of different fixed concentrations of Drug X. Based upon the data shown, Drug X is most likely a(n):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Competitive antagonist. This can be determined by observing that the presence of Drug X shifts the dose-response curve for isoproterenol to the right without affecting the maximal response. This indicates competitive antagonism, where Drug X competes with isoproterenol for the same receptor site without affecting the efficacy of isoproterenol. Choice A (Beta agonist) is incorrect because the graph does not show any direct agonistic effect of Drug X. Choice C (Irreversible antagonist) is incorrect because the effect of Drug X is reversible, as shown by the ability of isoproterenol to still elicit a response in the presence of Drug X. Choice D (Noncompetitive antagonist) is incorrect because noncompetitive antagonists typically reduce the maximal response of the agonist, which is not seen in this graph.
Question 5 of 5
A 64-year-old man suffering from benign prostatic hyperplasia presented to his physician complaining of generalized itching. The problem began 1 week earlier, after an afternoon of prolonged sun exposure. The patient reported that the itching was distressing, especially during the night. Physical examination showed an enlarged prostate and no other evidence of ongoing disease. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loratadine. Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that is commonly used to relieve symptoms of allergies, including itching. In this case, the patient's generalized itching is likely due to an allergic reaction triggered by sun exposure. Loratadine can help alleviate the itching without causing excessive sedation, making it suitable for an elderly patient. A: Cyproheptadine is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause significant sedation and anticholinergic side effects, making it less ideal for an elderly patient. B: Diphenhydramine is also a first-generation antihistamine that can cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects, which may not be well-tolerated by the elderly patient. C: Famotidine is a histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat ulcers, not itching related to allergic reactions.