ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 2 of 9
During an interview, the nurse notices that the patient is avoiding eye contact. What would be the best action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking open-ended questions helps the patient express their feelings without feeling pressured. This approach allows the patient to share at their own pace and comfort level. Choice A may make the patient feel uncomfortable or pressured. Choice B may not address the underlying issue of the patient's avoidance of eye contact. Choice D is more direct and may not be effective if the patient is not ready to discuss their emotions. Ultimately, using open-ended questions promotes a safe and supportive environment for the patient to open up willingly.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most appropriate action for a nurse when caring for a client with severe hypothermia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer warm IV fluids. This is because in severe hypothermia, the body's core temperature drops dangerously low, leading to decreased circulation and potential organ failure. Administering warm IV fluids helps to gradually raise the core temperature and prevent further complications. Choice B (Warming the client with a heating pad) can cause rewarming shock and skin burns. Choice C (Placing the client in a supine position) is not directly related to treating hypothermia. Choice D (Administering analgesics) is not the priority in treating severe hypothermia.
Question 4 of 9
For which condition might blood be drawn to check uric acid levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: gout. Uric acid levels are typically checked for gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. This condition directly relates to uric acid levels in the blood. Asthma (choice A), diverticulitis (choice C), and meningitis (choice D) do not typically require checking uric acid levels. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis is a gastrointestinal condition, and meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.
Question 5 of 9
Which action is most important for a nurse caring for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the client. This is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. Moving a client with a suspected spinal cord injury can worsen the injury and lead to permanent damage. Immobilizing the client helps maintain spinal alignment and reduces the risk of paralysis. Providing pain relief (B) and loosening clothing (D) are important but secondary actions. Applying pressure to the chest (C) is not recommended for a suspected spinal cord injury as it can also exacerbate the injury.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse notices that the mother of a 2-year-old boy brings him to the clinic quite frequently for various injuries and suspects there may be some child abuse involved. The nurse should inspect the young child for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums. This is the most relevant choice as it is a common sign of physical abuse in children. Bruising in unusual places or patterns, such as the mouth, should raise suspicion. Swollen, red tonsils (A) are more likely related to infection rather than abuse. Ulcerations on the hard palate (B) can also be due to various non-abuse related reasons. Small yellow papules along the hard palate (D) are typically harmless and not indicative of abuse. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of potential abuse and take appropriate action to protect the child.
Question 7 of 9
When performing an otoscopic examination on a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in colour and there are air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information would be that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: this is most likely serous otitis media. In a child with chronic ear infections, amber-yellow tympanic membrane color and air bubbles suggest fluid accumulation behind the eardrum, characteristic of serous otitis media. The occasional hearing loss and popping sound with swallowing are also common symptoms. Serous otitis media is a non-infectious condition caused by Eustachian tube dysfunction. Choice B: Acute purulent otitis media presents with more severe symptoms like fever and severe ear pain, which are not mentioned in the case. Choice C: Cholesteatoma is a more serious condition characterized by a cyst-like growth in the middle ear, not just fluid accumulation as seen in this case. Choice D: Perforation typically presents with a visible hole in the eardrum and is not consistent with the findings of fluid and air bubbles in this case.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse consider as an early indicator of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever. Fever is an early indicator of infection as it is the body's natural response to fighting off pathogens. When the body detects an infection, it raises its temperature to create an inhospitable environment for the pathogens. Pain at the surgical site (B) is common post-operatively but may not necessarily indicate infection. Redness at the incision site (C) can be a sign of inflammation but is not specific to infection. Increased heart rate (D) can occur due to various reasons post-operatively, not just infection. Fever is a systemic response and a more reliable early indicator of infection in this context.
Question 9 of 9
What is the priority action for a client with an open chest wound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply a sterile dressing. Firstly, cover the wound with a sterile occlusive dressing to prevent air from entering the pleural space, reducing the risk of tension pneumothorax. This also helps to prevent infection and further complications. Administering morphine (B) or nitroglycerin (D) is not the priority in this situation as managing the chest wound is crucial. Applying an airtight dressing (C) may lead to tension pneumothorax if not done properly. Therefore, the immediate action should be to apply a sterile dressing to stabilize the wound and prevent further complications.