ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in nursing clinical decision-making. In this scenario, the nurse considers the patient's self-reported information (time of last dressing change and observation of old and new drainage) as key data points to validate the need for changing the wound dressing. This aligns with the principles of evidence-based practice and ensures that the decision is based on accurate and relevant information. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the systematic validation of data to inform the nursing decision-making process. Choice B relies on family input rather than objective data, Choice C jumps to a treatment decision without confirming the underlying cause, and Choice D does not involve validating the patient's reported symptom before taking action.
Question 2 of 9
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.
Question 3 of 9
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 4 of 9
A client in the final stages of terminal cancer tells the nurse: “I wish I could be just be allowed to die. I’m tired of fighting this illness. I have lived life a good life. I only continue my chemotherapy and radiation treatment because my family wants me to.” What is the best nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Would you like to talk to a psychologist about your thoughts and feelings?" This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and offers professional support. A psychologist can provide counseling and help the client explore their feelings and concerns about end-of-life decisions. Choice B is incorrect because it assumes the client's spiritual beliefs are the primary concern, neglecting the emotional and psychological aspects. Choice C involves more people in the decision-making process without addressing the client's individual needs. Choice D is dismissive and does not offer any support or explore the client's feelings further. In summary, choice A is the best response because it prioritizes the client's emotional well-being and offers appropriate support through professional counseling.
Question 5 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a new preoperative patient who is nil by mouth (NPO). The nurse notes that the patient has been on long-term oral steroid therapy. The nurse understands that which of the following is the reason that steroids cannot be abruptly stopped?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because abruptly stopping steroids can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the adrenal glands. This can result in a sudden drop in cortisol levels, which are essential for various physiological functions. Patients on long-term steroid therapy need a gradual taper to allow the adrenal glands to resume cortisol production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the physiological effects of stopping steroids abruptly.
Question 7 of 9
A 39-year old male client underwent Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP) eight hours ago and asks the nurse, “Why is my urine in the bag clotting like blood?” The nurse’s best interpretation of this finding is that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: after the surgery, bleeding is normal. This is because after a TURP procedure, it is common for some bleeding to occur, leading to blood clots in the urine bag. The surgical site undergoes trauma, causing bleeding as a part of the healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while irrigation may be done post-surgery, blood clots in the urine bag are expected due to the surgery itself, not just irrigation. Choice C is incorrect as it is normal for some bleeding to occur after TURP, and immediate physician intervention is not necessary unless excessive bleeding is observed. Choice D is incorrect as tugging on the catheter may cause bleeding, but in this case, the presence of blood clots is likely due to the surgery itself, not catheter irritation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and asks what causes it. The nurse would respond that the destruction of the thyroid in this condition is due to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Autoantibodies. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland by producing autoantibodies against thyroid proteins such as thyroglobulin and thyroid peroxidase. These autoantibodies lead to inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue. Antigen-antibody complexes (choice A) are not the main mechanism in Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Viral (choice B) and bacterial infections (choice D) do not directly cause autoimmune destruction of the thyroid in this condition. Autoantibodies targeting the thyroid gland are the key pathogenic factor in Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
Question 9 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.