ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in nursing clinical decision-making. In this scenario, the nurse considers the patient's self-reported information (time of last dressing change and observation of old and new drainage) as key data points to validate the need for changing the wound dressing. This aligns with the principles of evidence-based practice and ensures that the decision is based on accurate and relevant information. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the systematic validation of data to inform the nursing decision-making process. Choice B relies on family input rather than objective data, Choice C jumps to a treatment decision without confirming the underlying cause, and Choice D does not involve validating the patient's reported symptom before taking action.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following guidekines does not observe surgical asepisi in the operating room?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in surgical asepsis, sterile articles should not touch other sterile articles or surfaces to maintain sterility. Choice B is correct as surgical team gowns are sterile in front. Choice C is correct as any breach makes the area contaminated. Choice D is correct as sterile drapes create a sterile field.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is explaining the action of insulin to a newly diagnosed diabetic client. During the teaching, the nurse reviews the process of insulin secretion in the body. The nurse is correct when stating that insulin is secreted from the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Insulin is a hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreas. 2. Beta cells are responsible for monitoring blood glucose levels and secreting insulin in response to high glucose levels. 3. Insulin helps regulate blood glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into cells. 4. Adenohypophysis secretes other hormones, not insulin. 5. Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon, not insulin. 6. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete calcitonin, not insulin. Summary: Choice C is correct because insulin is indeed secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not secrete insulin or are related to other hormones.
Question 4 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrimp and tomatoes. Shrimp is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Tomatoes are rich in Vitamin C, which helps enhance iron absorption. Cheese, bananas, lobster, squash, lamb, and peaches do not provide significant amounts of iron essential for an anemic client. The combination of shrimp and tomatoes offers a balanced approach to increase iron levels effectively.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform to monitor for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in a client with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure intake and output. Monitoring intake and output is crucial in assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in clients with neurologic deficits. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to neurological complications, so accurate monitoring is essential. Mini-mental status and Glasgow Coma scale are assessments of mental status, not electrolyte balance. Vital signs can provide some information, but intake and output measurement is more specific for assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Question 6 of 9
A patient tells his nurse that he has delayed having TURP because he is afraid it will affect his sexual function. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “This type of surgery rarely affects the ability to have an erection or ejaculation.” This response is appropriate because it provides accurate information that addresses the patient's concern about sexual function without making any false claims. TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate) typically does not impact a patient's ability to have an erection or ejaculate. This reassurance can help alleviate the patient's fears and provide him with accurate information to make an informed decision. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: “Don’t worry about sterility; sperm production is not affected by this surgery.” - This is incorrect as the concern is more about sexual function than sterility. B: “Would you like some information about implants used for impotence?” - This is incorrect as it jumps to a solution without addressing the patient's specific concern about TURP affecting sexual function. D: “There are many methods of sexual expression that are alternatives to sexual intercourse
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about the importance of adhering to prescribed medications. Which phase of the nursing process does this activity represent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In the nursing process, implementation involves carrying out the care plan, interventions, and education that were determined during the planning phase. Providing education to a client about the importance of adhering to prescribed medications falls under this phase as it involves putting the plan into action to promote positive health outcomes. Assessment (A) involves collecting data about the client's condition, Planning (B) involves developing a care plan based on the assessment findings, and Evaluation (D) involves assessing the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted to the ICU, which laboratory result must be reported immediately to the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: platelets 18,000. A critically low platelet count can lead to life-threatening bleeding in the ICU. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000. A count of 18,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Rationale for why other choices are incorrect: A: Hematocrit of 48% is within normal range (male: 42-52%, female: 37-47%). B: paCO2 of 38 mm Hg is within normal range (35-45 mm Hg). D: WBC count of 8000 is within normal range (4000-11000/uL). In critical care settings, it is vital to prioritize and address life-threatening conditions promptly, hence the urgent need to report the critically low platelet count.
Question 9 of 9
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Before administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to ensure they can tolerate the medication without compromising their breathing. Alertness indicates their ability to handle potential side effects, while respiratory rate is vital to monitor for any signs of respiratory depression. Choice B (last meal) is not directly related to giving a narcotic analgesic, although it may impact the absorption rate. Choice C (bowel habits) and last bowel movement are not immediately relevant to assessing the client's readiness for a narcotic analgesic. Choice D (history of addictions) is important but not the priority when assessing for immediate safety and efficacy of the medication.