ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which question would be most appropriate for a nurse to ask a patient to assist in establishing a nursing diagnosis of Diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking about the frequency of bowel movements is crucial in assessing diarrhea, a common symptom. This information helps determine the severity and duration of the condition, guiding the nurse in identifying potential causes and appropriate interventions. Choice A focuses on the cause of upset stomach, not specifically diarrhea. Choice C is more related to incontinence rather than diarrhea. Choice D is important but not directly related to establishing a nursing diagnosis for diarrhea. Therefore, Choice B is the most appropriate question to assist in accurately assessing and diagnosing diarrhea.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is evaluating goals and expected outcomes for a confused patient. Which finding indicates positive progress toward resolving the confusion? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient correctly stating names of family members in the room indicates improved cognitive function and memory recall, which are positive signs of progress in resolving confusion. This demonstrates improved orientation and ability to recognize familiar individuals. Choices A and B indicate safety concerns and risk of falls, which are not related to resolving confusion. Choice C indicates pain management and mobility but does not directly reflect improvement in cognitive status.
Question 3 of 9
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.
Question 4 of 9
Before, during and after seizure. The nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Side lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration of secretions and promotes drainage from the mouth during and after a seizure. Placing the patient in a side lying position also helps prevent injury from falling and facilitates monitoring of the patient's airway. Incorrect choices: A: Low fowler's - This position does not provide optimal airway protection and may increase the risk of aspiration during a seizure. B: Modified trendelenburg - This position may worsen the patient's airway patency and does not facilitate drainage of secretions. D: Supine - Placing the patient in a supine position can lead to aspiration and compromise the airway, especially during a seizure. Summary: The side lying position is the most appropriate choice as it ensures airway protection, facilitates drainage, and reduces the risk of aspiration during and after a seizure.
Question 5 of 9
Aling Iska, a 78-year old client consults with a hemoglobin and hematocrit levels of 11mg/dl and 32 % respectively. These finding indicates:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Answer B is correct because a hemoglobin level of 11mg/dl and hematocrit level of 32% in a 78-year-old client are indicative of anemia. Conducting a thorough nutritional assessment is essential to identify potential causes of anemia such as iron deficiency or vitamin deficiencies. This assessment will help determine appropriate interventions to manage the anemia. Summary: A: Incorrect. These levels are indicative of anemia, not normal findings. C: Incorrect. Advising to repeat the test in three months may delay necessary interventions for the anemia. D: Incorrect. While anemia can be related to bone marrow degeneration, a nutritional assessment is needed to identify the specific cause in this case.
Question 6 of 9
For the first 72 hours thyroidectomy surgery, the nurse would assess the client for Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign because they indicate which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocalcemia. Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are both indicators of hypocalcemia, which is a common complication following thyroidectomy surgery due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve and observing facial muscle twitching, while Trousseau's sign involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. Both signs are sensitive indicators of hypocalcemia due to their association with neuromuscular irritability. Hypercalcemia (option C) and hyperkalemia (option D) are not typically associated with thyroidectomy surgery and would not present with these specific signs. Hypokalemia (option B) is not related to Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign.
Question 7 of 9
A pregnant client with hypertension and cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following imbalances should the nurse check for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypomagnesemia. 1. Hypertension and cardiac dysrhythmias can be exacerbated by low magnesium levels. 2. Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal heart rhythm and blood pressure. 3. Hypomagnesemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and worsen hypertension. 4. Metabolic acidosis (A) is not directly related to hypertension and dysrhythmias. 5. Hypernatremia (B) and hypercalcemia (D) are less likely to be associated with cardiac issues in this context. In summary, checking for hypomagnesemia is essential due to its direct impact on the client's hypertension and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 8 of 9
A client has been scheduled for a Schilling test. What instruction will the nurse give the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collect his urine for 12 hours. This instruction is given because the Schilling test involves collecting urine over a specific time period to measure the absorption of vitamin B12. A is incorrect because fasting is not necessary. C is incorrect as enema is not required. D is incorrect as emptying the bladder is not part of the test procedure.
Question 9 of 9
The physician orders furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV STAT for an acutely fluid-overloaded patient. Why was the IV route likely chosen?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV is the route of choice for rapid administration. IV route allows for quick onset of action, crucial in acutely fluid-overloaded patients needing immediate diuresis. Option A is incorrect as furosemide can be given orally too. Option C is less relevant in this urgent situation where speed is key. Option D is also incorrect as the side effects are not determined by route of administration.