Which priority action should be implemented when hives are assessed on a patient started on a new medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Notify physician of allergic reaction. This is the priority action because hives can be a sign of an allergic reaction to a new medication, which can progress to a severe systemic reaction like anaphylaxis. Immediate physician notification is essential for prompt management, such as discontinuation of the medication and initiation of appropriate treatment. B: Idiosyncratic reactions are unpredictable and not related to allergies, so it is not the priority in this case. C: Teratogenicity refers to the potential harm to a fetus, which is not relevant when assessing hives in a patient. D: Tolerance is the body's decreased response to a medication over time, not a concern with hives in a patient on a new medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Terbinafine. 1. Terbinafine is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat fungal infections like athlete's foot or nail fungus, which are often treated orally. 2. Acyclovir (A) is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not fungal infections. 3. Metronidazole (B) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections. 4. Vancomycin (D) is also an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal infections. Therefore, Terbinafine is the most appropriate choice for treating the patient's fungal infection orally.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Warfarin. Warfarin is commonly prescribed for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation due to its ability to prevent blood clot formation by inhibiting clotting factors. Aspirin is less effective than warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for rate control in atrial fibrillation but does not directly prevent stroke. Heparin is a short-acting anticoagulant not typically used for long-term stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication that works by binding to hydroxyapatite crystals in bone, inhibiting osteoclast function and reducing bone resorption. This leads to increased bone mineral density and decreased risk of fractures in osteoporosis. Choices B and C are incorrect because alendronate does not directly promote osteoblast activity or increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate does not inhibit the production of parathyroid hormone.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase in the liver. Atorvastatin is a statin drug that works by inhibiting this enzyme, which plays a crucial role in the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver. By blocking this enzyme, atorvastatin reduces the production of cholesterol in the liver, leading to lower levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Incorrect answers: A: Inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol in the intestines - This is the mechanism of action of drugs like ezetimibe, not atorvastatin. C: Increasing HDL cholesterol levels - Atorvastatin primarily lowers LDL cholesterol levels and has minimal effect on raising HDL cholesterol levels. D: Increasing the excretion of cholesterol in the bile - This is the mechanism of action of bile acid sequestrants, not atorvastatin.