ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which postpartum patient reqNuUirResS fuIrNthGerT aBss.esCsmOeMnt?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the postpartum patient who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours should receive further assessment. This indicates excessive postpartum bleeding (postpartum hemorrhage), which is a critical complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring vital signs, assessing for signs of shock, evaluating uterine tone, and determining the cause of bleeding are crucial steps in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Choices B, C, and D are not the correct answers because: B: A patient with Class II heart disease complaining of frequent coughing is more likely experiencing cardiac-related issues and requires evaluation and management by a cardiologist. C: A patient with gestational diabetes and a fasting blood sugar level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require immediate further assessment. D: A postcesarean patient with active herpes lesions on the labia requires appropriate management of the herpes infection but does not necess
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Circumcision. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted behind the glans and cannot be returned to its original position. Once the inflammation and edema subside, circumcision is typically indicated to prevent recurrence. This procedure removes the foreskin, reducing the risk of future paraphimosis episodes. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum (A) is not indicated for paraphimosis. Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks (C) is not a standard treatment for paraphimosis. Administration of vardenafil (D) is used for erectile dysfunction and not indicated for paraphimosis.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In ovarian cancer, a common clinical manifestation is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, leading to increased abdominal girth. This is known as ascites. The presence of ascites can be observed through physical examination and abdominal imaging. A: Fish-like vaginal odor is not typically associated with ovarian cancer. It may be a symptom of other gynecological conditions. C: Fever and chills are not specific to ovarian cancer and can be seen in various infectious or inflammatory conditions. D: Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common symptom in many gynecological conditions but is not a specific manifestation of ovarian cancer.
Question 4 of 9
A patient who has had a lumpectomy calls the clinic to talk to the nurse. The patient tells the nurse that she has developed a tender area on her breast that is red and warm and looks like someone drew a line with a red marker. What would the nurse suspect is the womans problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mondor disease. This condition presents as a superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast veins, causing a tender, red, warm, cord-like area resembling a red line. This is typically benign and self-limiting. B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the breast is unlikely as it typically involves deeper veins in the extremities. C: Recurrent malignancy is less likely as the symptoms described are more indicative of a benign condition like Mondor disease. D: An area of fat necrosis is also less likely as it usually presents as a painless, firm lump rather than a red, warm, tender area.
Question 5 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teaching patients to wear sunscreen, which is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs by addressing risk factors. In this case, teaching patients to wear sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer by reducing exposure to harmful UV rays. Yearly Pap tests (A) are a secondary prevention measure for cervical cancer, detecting precancerous changes. Testicular self-examination (B) is a form of secondary prevention for testicular cancer, aiming to detect any abnormalities early. Screening mammograms (D) are also a secondary prevention measure for breast cancer, detecting tumors at an early stage.
Question 6 of 9
The nurses assessment of a patient with significant visual losses reveals that the patient cannot count fingers. How should the nurse proceed with assessment of the patients visual acuity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's inability to count fingers indicates severe visual impairment. Testing hand motion perception is a more appropriate initial assessment for patients with such significant visual losses. This method can differentiate between light perception and no light perception, providing valuable information about the patient's visual acuity. The other choices are incorrect because assessing vision using a Snellen chart (A) requires more visual acuity than just being able to see hand motion. Performing a detailed examination of external eye structures (C) and palpating periocular regions (D) are not relevant for assessing visual acuity and do not provide information on the patient's ability to perceive hand motion.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patients spouse says, I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside. The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complicated grief and mourning. This is characterized by a sense of emotional numbness and feeling hollow inside, which the patient's spouse is experiencing after the patient's death. Complicated grief involves intense and prolonged mourning that may interfere with daily functioning. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Uncomplicated grief and mourning typically involves a range of emotions, including sadness and sorrow, but not the profound numbness and emptiness described. C: Depression stage of dying refers to a stage in the Kubler-Ross model, but the patient's spouse is not the one dying, so this does not apply. D: Acceptance stage of dying involves coming to terms with one's impending death, not the aftermath of losing a loved one to sepsis.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is auditing and monitoring patients’ health records. Which action is the nurse taking?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse is auditing and monitoring patients' health records, indicating a review process. Step 2: By reviewing patients' health records, the nurse is determining the degree to which standards of care are met. Step 3: This action aligns with auditing, which involves assessing if care meets established standards. Step 4: The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly involve auditing or monitoring for compliance with standards of care. Choice B talks about undocumented care, C about reimbursement, and D about treatment outcomes comparison.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is performing an assessment on a patientwho has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. The nurse will expect which other assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoactive bowel sounds. When a patient has not had a bowel movement in 3 days, it indicates constipation. Constipation can lead to decreased peristalsis, resulting in hypoactive bowel sounds. Increased fluid intake (B) would be a potential intervention, not an expected assessment finding. A soft tender abdomen (C) may indicate other issues like inflammation or infection, not directly related to constipation. Jaundice in the sclera (D) is indicative of liver dysfunction, not a typical finding associated with constipation.