ATI RN
Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which position increases cardiac output in the obstetrical client with cardiac disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lateral positioning. This position increases cardiac output in obstetrical clients with cardiac disease by improving venous return to the heart, reducing pressure on the vena cava, and optimizing uteroplacental perfusion. The other choices are incorrect because Trendelenburg can worsen cardiac function by increasing venous return and intracardiac volume, low semi-Fowler does not optimize venous return and may decrease preload, and supine positioning with legs elevated can compress the vena cava, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential hypotension.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse receives a phone call from a patient at 36 weeks' gestation who states they are having right upper quadrant pain that penetrates to the upper back. What priority information does the nurse need to obtain from the patient? Select 3 that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A is important to determine the onset and characteristics of the pain to assess for possible causes like pre-eclampsia. B is crucial to assess for signs of liver or gallbladder issues. C is important to rule out any potential infection like chorioamnionitis. D is not relevant to the presenting symptoms and does not provide information related to the patient's condition.
Question 3 of 5
A patient at 10 weeks' gestation informs the nurse they are having vaginal bleeding and cramping. After completing a speculum examination, the health-care provider (HCP) informs the patient their cervix is open. What does the nurse anticipate the HCP will inform the patient they are experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: inevitable abortion. At 10 weeks' gestation, an open cervix with vaginal bleeding and cramping indicates an inevitable abortion, where the miscarriage is unavoidable and the process is ongoing. The open cervix suggests that the pregnancy is not viable and will not continue. The other options are incorrect because: A. Complete abortion refers to the expulsion of all products of conception, B. Incomplete abortion involves partial expulsion of products of conception, and D. Spontaneous abortion is a general term for any non-induced abortion.
Question 4 of 5
What is the difference between a complete abortion and an incomplete abortion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in a complete abortion, the uterus is empty, indicating that all products of conception have been expelled. In contrast, in an incomplete abortion, some products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to ongoing bleeding and cramping. Choice B is incorrect because cervical dilation is not the defining factor between complete and incomplete abortions. Choice C is incorrect as both complete and incomplete abortions can present with symptoms of miscarriage. Choice D is incorrect because the method of fetal removal does not differentiate between complete and incomplete abortions.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in preeclampsia to prevent seizures/eclampsia. It works by reducing neuromuscular transmission and excitability, making it an effective anticonvulsant. Diuretics (A) help remove excess fluid, tocolytics (B) inhibit uterine contractions, and antihypertensives (D) lower blood pressure, but they do not address the primary purpose of using magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia, which is to prevent seizures.