ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which points should a nurse includes in the discharge teaching plan for a client after cardiac surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it addresses the importance of notifying the physician about a painless lump at the top of the chest incision, which could indicate a serious complication like a seroma or hematoma. This is crucial for early detection and intervention. A is incorrect because showers are generally allowed after cardiac surgery as long as the incisions are kept clean and dry. C is incorrect because support hose or elastic stockings are typically recommended to be worn during the day and removed at night to prevent swelling and promote circulation. D is incorrect because resuming sexual relations after cardiac surgery should be based on individual recovery and should be discussed with the healthcare provider, rather than a standard timeframe.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is dangling at the bedside and states, “Oh, my stomach is tearing open.” Which of the following actions should the nurse immediately take when dehiscence occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have patient lie down. When a patient experiences dehiscence (surgical wound separation), lying down helps reduce tension on the wound, minimizing the risk of further tearing. This position also allows the nurse to assess the wound properly. Choice A is incorrect because sitting upright can increase intra-abdominal pressure, worsening the dehiscence. Choice C is incorrect as slowing IV fluids is not a priority in managing dehiscence. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a sterile suture set should only be done by a healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed for dehiscence.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data in nursing refers to measurable and observable information. Respirations at 16 per minute are a specific, quantifiable measurement that the nurse can directly observe, making it objective data. This information is vital for assessing the patient's respiratory status accurately. Choice A is incorrect because stating "doesn't feel good" is a subjective statement based on the patient's perception and cannot be directly measured or observed. Choice B, reporting a headache, is also subjective as it relies on the patient's description of their symptoms. Choice D, being nauseated, is subjective as well, as it is a symptom reported by the patient and not a quantifiable measurement. In summary, choice C is correct as it represents objective data due to its quantifiable and observable nature, while the other choices are subjective and based on the patient's perceptions or feelings.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is hospitalized following a stroke. Three days after admission, the patient is able to converse clearly with the nurse during the morning assessment. Early in the afternoon, the patient’s daughter runs out of the room and says, “My mother can’t talk. Somebody help!” Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should do a quick assessment to confirm the change in the patient's status, then notify the RN or physician. This is the best response because the nurse needs to immediately assess the patient's condition to ensure prompt intervention if needed. By confirming the change in the patient's status, the nurse can provide the necessary information to the healthcare team for appropriate evaluation and management. The other choices are incorrect because: A does not address the urgency of the situation, C involves unnecessary delay by waiting for the speech therapist, and D is not appropriate as the nurse should be the one assessing and notifying the healthcare team.
Question 5 of 9
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because right-sided weakness is typically associated with damage or impairment in the left lobe of the brain. The brain controls the opposite side of the body, so weakness on the right side indicates left brain involvement. This is known as contralateral control. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left brain damage, problems in judging distance and proprioception are related to parietal lobe damage, and orientation to time and space is more related to frontal lobe damage. Therefore, the most accurate analysis by the nurse would be to consider the affected lobe as the right lobe in this case.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following conditions is suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anemia. Anemia is a common condition characterized by a decrease in red blood cells or hemoglobin levels, leading to symptoms like fatigue and weakness. It is often suspected based on symptoms such as pale skin and shortness of breath. Rheumatic arthritis (B) is a type of arthritis affecting joints, not related to the blood. Leukemia (C) is a type of cancer affecting the blood and bone marrow. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) (D) is an autoimmune disease that can affect various organs, not specifically related to blood cell levels. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, anemia is the most likely condition to be suspected.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse caring for an adult client. The nurse will need to monitor for which of the following metabolic complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.
Question 8 of 9
A 25-year old with hepatitis may be anicteric and symptomless. In the early part of the hepatic inflammatory disorder, the most likely symptom/sign is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anorexia. In the early stage of hepatic inflammatory disorder, anorexia is the most likely symptom/sign. This is because hepatic inflammation can lead to a decrease in appetite, resulting in anorexia. Dark urine (A) is commonly associated with liver dysfunction but typically occurs later in the disease process. Occult blood in stools (B) is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than early hepatic inflammation. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a later manifestation of liver disease. Therefore, anorexia is the most likely symptom in the early stages of hepatic inflammatory disorder.
Question 9 of 9
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a tentative diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism. The nurse should monitor the client closely for the related problem of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Profound neuromuscular irritability. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a decrease in parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. This can result in neuromuscular irritability such as muscle cramps, spasms, and tingling. Monitoring for neuromuscular symptoms is crucial as they can progress to severe complications like seizures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically present with severe hypotension, excessive thirst, or acute gastritis. Monitoring for signs of hypocalcemia and neuromuscular irritability is essential in managing hypoparathyroidism.