ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which physiological response is often associated with surgery-related stress?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of surgery-related stress, the physiological response often includes sodium and water retention, making option D the correct answer. When the body undergoes stress, such as during surgery, the release of stress hormones like cortisol can lead to increased sodium and water retention by the kidneys. This response helps to maintain blood pressure and fluid balance in the body during times of stress. Option A, bronchial constriction, is not typically associated with surgery-related stress. Bronchial constriction is more commonly seen in conditions like asthma or allergic reactions. Decreased cortisol levels, as mentioned in option B, would be an atypical response to surgery-related stress. During stress, cortisol levels usually rise to help the body cope with the increased demands. Peripheral vasodilation, as in option C, is not a typical response to surgery-related stress. In fact, vasoconstriction is more commonly seen in response to stress to help redirect blood flow to vital organs. Understanding the physiological responses to stress in the context of surgery is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals. Being able to identify these responses helps in providing appropriate care and monitoring post-operative patients for any complications related to the stress response.
Question 2 of 5
After completing a thorough neurological and physical assessment of a patient who is admitted for a suspected stroke, the medical-surgical nurse anticipates the next step in the immediate care of this patient will include
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of a suspected stroke, the next immediate step for the patient's care is to obtain a CT scan of the head without contrast (Option B). This is crucial because a CT scan can quickly identify if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, guiding subsequent treatment decisions. Administering tissue plasminogen activator (Option A) is a time-sensitive intervention for ischemic strokes, but it should only be done after a CT scan rules out hemorrhagic stroke to prevent potential worsening of bleeding. Obtaining a neurosurgical consultation (Option C) and preparing for carotid Doppler ultrasonography (Option D) may be necessary for further management or to assess risk factors, but they are not the immediate next steps in a suspected stroke scenario. From an educational perspective, understanding the sequence of actions in stroke care is vital for nurses to provide safe and effective patient care. This scenario highlights the importance of timely and appropriate diagnostic assessments to inform treatment decisions in acute neurological emergencies.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with trigeminal neuralgia. To assist the client with nutrition needs, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In caring for a client with trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse should select option A, which is to offer small meals of high-calorie soft food. Trigeminal neuralgia causes severe facial pain triggered by activities such as chewing. Therefore, providing small meals of soft, high-calorie foods helps the client meet their nutritional needs without exacerbating their pain. Option B is incorrect because sitting in a chair for meals does not specifically address the dietary requirements related to trigeminal neuralgia. Option C suggesting additional servings of fruits and raw vegetables may be challenging for a client experiencing facial pain and difficulty chewing. Option D recommending specific protein sources like fish, liver, and chicken may not be appropriate if the client experiences pain while chewing these harder foods. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding how certain health conditions impact a client's ability to meet their nutritional needs. Nurses must adapt their approach to nutrition based on the client's specific condition to ensure optimal care and comfort.
Question 4 of 5
When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease about oxygen by cannula, the nurse should also instruct the client's family to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about oxygen by cannula, instructing the client's family to avoid smoking near the client (Option A) is crucial for several reasons. First, smoking near a client with COPD can exacerbate their condition by introducing more irritants and pollutants into the air they breathe, worsening their respiratory symptoms. Second, oxygen supports combustion, so smoking near oxygen use poses a serious fire hazard. Educating the family about the risks of smoking near the client reinforces a smoke-free environment, promoting the client's respiratory health and safety. Option B, turning off oxygen during meals, is incorrect because interrupting oxygen therapy during meals can deprive the client of needed oxygen, especially when their respiratory demand increases with eating and digestion. Consistent oxygen therapy is vital for clients with COPD to maintain adequate oxygen levels. Option C, adjusting the liter flow to 10 as needed, is incorrect because oxygen flow rates should be prescribed by a healthcare provider based on the client's oxygen saturation levels, respiratory status, and individualized oxygen therapy plan. Changing the liter flow without medical guidance can lead to oxygen underuse or misuse. Option D, reminding the client to keep their mouth closed, is incorrect as it does not directly relate to oxygen therapy via cannula. While mouth breathing may impact oxygen delivery in some cases, it is not the primary concern when educating the client's family about oxygen therapy and COPD management. In an educational context, it is essential to emphasize the importance of a holistic approach to caring for clients with COPD. Educating both the client and their family members empowers them to create a supportive environment that enhances the client's well-being and adherence to treatment. Understanding the rationale behind each instruction helps family members play an active role in promoting the client's respiratory health and safety.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with benign prostatic hypertrophy. Which of the following assessments would the nurse anticipate finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In caring for a client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), the nurse would anticipate finding frequent urination. This is because BPH can cause compression of the urethra, leading to urinary symptoms such as increased frequency of urination. Option A, a large volume of urinary output with each voiding, is incorrect for BPH as the condition typically leads to obstructive symptoms rather than increased volume. Option B, involuntary voiding with coughing and sneezing, is more indicative of stress incontinence, which is not typically associated with BPH. Option D, dark and concentrated urine, is not a common finding in BPH and is more suggestive of dehydration or other urinary issues. Educationally, understanding the expected assessment findings in clients with BPH is crucial for nurses to provide appropriate care and interventions. Recognizing the symptoms of BPH can help nurses implement effective management strategies and improve patient outcomes.