Which physical finding indicates developmental dysplasia of the hip in an 11-12-month-old child?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: not pulling to a standing position. In an 11-12-month-old child, the inability to pull to a standing position may indicate developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as it can lead to abnormal hip development. Refusal to walk (A) can be a sign of other musculoskeletal issues but not specific to DDH. Negative Trendelenburg sign (C) refers to weakness in the hip abductors and is not a specific finding for DDH. A negative Ortolani sign (D) indicates the absence of hip dislocation and is not a definitive sign of DDH at this age.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for transfusion reactions. When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, it may indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a febrile non-hemolytic reaction. The nurse's first priority is to monitor the client closely for other signs of a reaction, such as fever, rash, or shortness of breath. Stopping the transfusion may be necessary, but monitoring for reactions is crucial to identify and manage any adverse effects promptly. Vital signs should be monitored as part of assessing for reactions. Performing a lumbar puncture is not indicated in this situation and is unrelated to managing a transfusion reaction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Their sensory-perceptive abilities. Assessing sensory-perceptive abilities is crucial in older adults as sensory impairments can mimic signs of mental health issues. By assessing sensory functions first, the nurse can rule out any physical factors influencing the assessment. Phobias (A) and irrational thinking patterns (C) are psychological aspects that come after ruling out sensory issues. General intelligence (B) may not be the priority as cognitive decline can be affected by sensory impairments.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. MOPP therapy for Hodgkin's disease commonly causes hair loss (alopecia), which directly affects body image. This is due to the impact on a person's physical appearance, leading to changes in self-perception and confidence. Cushingoid appearance (A) is a side effect of prolonged corticosteroid use, not typically associated with MOPP therapy. Temporary or permanent sterility (C) and pathologic fractures (D) are potential side effects of other cancer treatments but are not directly related to altering body image.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Are you able to dress yourself?" This question is the most important because it directly assesses the patient's functional abilities post-stroke, providing crucial information about their independence and self-care abilities. It helps determine the patient's level of disability and need for assistance with activities of daily living. Choice A: "Do you wear glasses?" is not as important in this context as it does not directly address the patient's functional status post-stroke. Choice C: "Do you have any thyroid problems?" is irrelevant to the functional assessment of a patient post-stroke. Choice D: "How many times a day do you have a bowel movement?" is not as critical as assessing the patient's ability to perform basic activities of daily living.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: not pulling to a standing position. In an 11-12-month-old child, the inability to pull to a standing position may indicate developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as it can lead to abnormal hip development. Refusal to walk (A) can be a sign of other musculoskeletal issues but not specific to DDH. Negative Trendelenburg sign (C) refers to weakness in the hip abductors and is not a specific finding for DDH. A negative Ortolani sign (D) indicates the absence of hip dislocation and is not a definitive sign of DDH at this age.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for hyperkalemia is to administer insulin (Choice C). Insulin drives potassium into cells, lowering serum potassium levels. This is effective in acutely reducing high potassium levels. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice A) is used for stabilizing cardiac membranes in hyperkalemia but does not lower potassium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is used for metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss but is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hamburgers. Clients with hypercholesterolemia should decrease their intake of saturated fats and cholesterol. Hamburgers are typically high in saturated fats and cholesterol due to the ground beef patty and cheese. Broiled catfish (A) is a lean protein source and can be a healthier option. Wheat bread (C) is a good source of fiber and can help lower cholesterol levels. Fresh apples (D) are a healthy choice low in saturated fats and cholesterol. Therefore, hamburgers should be decreased in the diet to manage hypercholesterolemia effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a supine position. This is the first step when administering Heparin to prevent bleeding or bruising at the injection site. Placing the client in a supine position helps reduce the risk of injury and promotes optimal absorption. Administering antipyretics (Choice A) is not the first step in administering Heparin. Administering insulin (Choice C) is unrelated to Heparin administration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is important but typically done after the initial step of positioning the client correctly.