ATI RN
jarvis health assessment test bank pdf reddit Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which physical finding indicates developmental dysplasia of the hip in an 11-12-month-old child?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not pulling to a standing position. In an 11-12-month-old child, the inability to pull to a standing position may indicate developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as it can lead to abnormal hip development. Refusal to walk (A) can be a sign of other musculoskeletal issues but not specific to DDH. Negative Trendelenburg sign (C) refers to weakness in the hip abductors and is not a specific finding for DDH. A negative Ortolani sign (D) indicates the absence of hip dislocation and is not a definitive sign of DDH at this age.
Question 2 of 5
Which side effect is most likely to alter body image in a client receiving MOPP therapy for Hodgkin's disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. MOPP therapy for Hodgkin's disease commonly causes hair loss (alopecia), which directly affects body image. This is due to the impact on a person's physical appearance, leading to changes in self-perception and confidence. Cushingoid appearance (A) is a side effect of prolonged corticosteroid use, not typically associated with MOPP therapy. Temporary or permanent sterility (C) and pathologic fractures (D) are potential side effects of other cancer treatments but are not directly related to altering body image.
Question 3 of 5
Which organ of the digestive system primarily functions in absorption?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: small intestine. This is because the small intestine is where the majority of nutrient absorption takes place due to its large surface area and presence of villi for absorption. The stomach (A) primarily functions in digestion, not absorption. The pancreas (B) produces digestive enzymes but does not directly absorb nutrients. The gallbladder (D) stores bile produced by the liver to aid in digestion but does not participate in absorption directly.
Question 4 of 5
Which vaccines should be emphasized to prevent diseases?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio, pertussis, and measles are highly infectious diseases that can have severe consequences if not prevented through vaccination. Polio can cause paralysis, pertussis can be fatal in infants, and measles can lead to complications like pneumonia and encephalitis. Emphasizing these vaccines can significantly reduce the risk of outbreaks and protect public health. Choice A is incorrect because HPV and genital herpes are sexually transmitted infections, and although important, they are not typically prevented through vaccines like polio, pertussis, and measles. Choice B is incorrect because pneumonia, HIV, and mumps, while serious diseases, do not have vaccines that are as universally recommended for prevention as polio, pertussis, and measles. Choice C is incorrect because syphilis and gonorrhea are sexually transmitted infections, and pneumonia is not typically prevented through vaccination as effectively as polio, pertussis, and measles.
Question 5 of 5
Which injury is the highest priority for a client entering the Emergency Department?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, stab wound to the chest. This injury is the highest priority because it poses the greatest risk to the client's life due to potential damage to vital organs and major blood vessels. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent severe bleeding, pneumothorax, or cardiac tamponade. Treating this injury promptly can significantly increase the client's chances of survival. The other choices are incorrect because: A: An open leg fracture, while serious, does not typically pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to a stab wound to the chest. B: An open head injury can be severe, but not all head injuries are immediately life-threatening. D: Traumatic amputation of a thumb, while traumatic and painful, is not a priority compared to injuries that directly threaten a client's life.