ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 Infection Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which patient would benefit from administration of simvastatin (Zocor) 80 mg?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In general, the maximum recommended dose of simvastatin is 40 mg daily due to an increased risk of myopathy, including rhabdomyolysis, at higher doses. However, in certain cases, especially for patients who have been tolerating and responding well to simvastatin 40 mg for an extended period without experiencing myopathy, increasing the dose to 80 mg may be considered. Patients who have been taking simvastatin for 12 months with no evidence of myopathy are likely to benefit from the higher dose in terms of better lipid control. It is important to monitor closely for any signs or symptoms of myopathy even with the 80 mg dose.
Question 2 of 9
A 23-year-old man victim of a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department. He is found to have a blood alcohol level of 850 mg/dL. Because of the way the body handles ethanol, the conventional 'half-life' to describe its metabolism does not apply. Which of the following drugs at therapeutic concentrations exhibits the same property?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ethanol's zero-order metabolism matches phenytoin , saturating enzymes at therapeutic levels. Aspirin , ibuprofen , simvastatin , and valproic acid (E) follow first-order kinetics. Phenytoin's fixed-rate clearance mirrors ethanol's.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client receiving amphotericin B for a fungal infection. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphotericin B, an antifungal, is nephrotoxic , damaging renal tubules and reducing GFR, a severe effect needing close monitoring (e.g., creatinine, urine output) to adjust dosing or hydration. Ototoxicity , hepatotoxicity , and cardiotoxicity are less common. Nephrotoxicity's frequency and severity align with amphotericin's membrane-binding mechanism, critical in fungal infections where prolonged use is typical, making A the priority to monitor for renal protection.
Question 4 of 9
Androgen is secreted by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Androgens, primarily testosterone, are secreted by the testes' Leydig cells, stimulated by luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary, making the testes the direct source. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary regulates sperm production, not androgen secretion. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus triggers pituitary LH and FSH release, indirectly influencing androgen production, not secreting it. The pituitary releases LH and FSH, not androgens itself. The testes' role as the endocrine organ producing androgens is clear, driven by LH, and is fundamental to male reproductive and secondary sexual characteristics, setting it apart from regulatory hormones in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is being discharged on anticoagulant therapy. The nurse will include in the patient- education conversation that it is important to avoid herbal products that contain which substance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ginkgo is known to have anticoagulant properties that can interact with and enhance the effects of anticoagulant medications, such as warfarin. Therefore, patients taking anticoagulant therapy should avoid herbal products containing ginkgo to prevent excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding complications. It is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients on potential herb-drug interactions to ensure their safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes.
Question 6 of 9
A 59-year-old man with a long history of cardiac arrhythmia is maintained on procainamide. He presents to his primary care physician complaining of malaise, fevers, and nausea. Physical examination reveals a bilateral malar rash with erythema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Procainamide can induce a lupus-like syndrome . Symptoms (malaise, fever, nausea) and malar rash mimic SLE, a known side effect due to drug-induced autoantibodies. Contact dermatitis lacks systemic features. Sun reaction or discoid lupus don't fit the drug link. Collagen disease (E) is vague. This reversible syndrome resolves with discontinuation, distinguishing it from primary lupus.
Question 7 of 9
The following drugs have an elimination half-life of less than 4 hours in a healthy adult:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dopamine has a short half-life due to rapid metabolism by monoamine oxidases and catechol-O-methyltransferase, while others have longer half-lives.
Question 8 of 9
Angiotension II receptor agents medications usually end in?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents medications usually end in -sartan. Examples of such medications include losartan, valsartan, and telmisartan. These drugs work by blocking the action of angiotensin II at its receptor sites, resulting in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion. This class of medications is commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension, heart failure, and diabetic nephropathy.
Question 9 of 9
A 43-year-old man undergoes a kidney transplantation. His physician prescribes azathioprine for graft rejection prophylaxis. His past medical history is significant for gouty arthritis. Which of the following antigout drugs should he avoid while taking azathioprine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Azathioprine, metabolized by xanthine oxidase, interacts with allopurinol , which inhibits this enzyme. This raises azathioprine levels, risking toxicity. Colchicine , Indomethacin , and Prednisolone don't affect this pathway. Probenecid (E) is safe. Avoiding allopurinol prevents immunosuppression complications.