Which patient statement would not be considered a potential risk factor for family-directed violence?

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Age Specific Care Competency Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which patient statement would not be considered a potential risk factor for family-directed violence?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having to get a part-time job to help buy food may indicate financial strain within the family but does not directly relate to family-directed violence. Choice A indicates a potential history of physical discipline, which is a risk factor for violence. Choice C suggests feelings of resentment and potential retaliation, indicating a risk factor. Choice D hints at emotional abuse through manipulation and body shaming, also a risk factor. Therefore, B is the only statement that does not directly indicate a risk factor for family-directed violence.

Question 2 of 5

A community mental health nurse receives a new client for his caseload. The diagnosis of the client is residual schizophrenia. Documentation states that the client has a number of negative symptoms. Which symptom would the nurse expect to assess in the client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Emotional blunting. In residual schizophrenia, negative symptoms are prominent, including emotional blunting which refers to a reduced ability to express emotions. This is commonly seen in clients with residual schizophrenia. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Bizarre, somatic delusions are characteristic of paranoid schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia. B: Disorganized speech pattern is a symptom of disorganized schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia. C: Catatonic posturing is associated with catatonic schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia.

Question 3 of 5

A newly admitted patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. He states that he saw two doctors talking in the hall and knows they were plotting to kill him. When charting, how should the nurse identify this behavior?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Idea of reference. This patient's belief that the doctors were plotting to kill him is an example of an idea of reference, a symptom of paranoia common in paranoid schizophrenia. This term refers to the belief that neutral actions or events are directed at oneself. Delusion of infidelity (B) involves false beliefs about a partner's infidelity, not relevant here. Auditory hallucination (C) is false perception of sound, not applicable. Echolalia (D) is the repetition of words or phrases, not seen in this scenario. Identifying the behavior as an idea of reference helps the nurse understand the patient's distorted perception and tailor interventions effectively.

Question 4 of 5

A patient has schizophrenia and is troubled by negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness. His Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) is considering changing the patient's antipsychotic medication, haloperidol (Haldol, a typical or first generation antipsychotic drug). For planning purposes, which medication can the nurse assume that the APN will probably choose?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical or second-generation antipsychotic known for effectively treating negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness in schizophrenia. It has a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics like haloperidol. Chlorpromazine (A) is a typical antipsychotic with similar side effect profiles as haloperidol. Clozapine (B) is an atypical antipsychotic but is typically reserved for treatment-resistant cases due to its potential for serious side effects. Fluoxetine (D) is an antidepressant and not typically used for treating the symptoms described in the question. Therefore, the APN will likely choose Olanzapine to address the patient's symptoms effectively with a lower risk of side effects.

Question 5 of 5

A patient, aged 82 years, has Alzheimer's disease. She lives with her daughter's family and goes to a day care facility on weekdays. The nurse at the day care center noticed the patient was unkempt and had multiple bruises. When the daughter arrived to pick her up, the nurse discussed her observations. The daughter became defensive and said that her mother was very difficult to manage. She stated, "My mother is not my mother anymore. She is confused, and she wanders all night. We have to watch her constantly. Last night I fell asleep, and she fell down the stairs. Sometimes I just cannot bear to care for her." Which nursing diagnosis would be most important to address for this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to impaired cognition, judgment, and coordination and lack of caregiver supervision. The rationale is that the patient's Alzheimer's disease has led to impaired cognitive function, making her at risk for injury due to wandering and falls. The daughter's lack of supervision and inability to manage the patient's needs further exacerbate this risk. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the immediate safety concern of the patient being at risk for injury. Nonadherence, anxiety, and impaired communication are important issues but do not take precedence over the patient's safety in this context.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions