Which patient statement suggests to the provider that the patient's nonadherence with their medication plan is related to dissatisfaction with the therapy?

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Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which patient statement suggests to the provider that the patient's nonadherence with their medication plan is related to dissatisfaction with the therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's statement indicates dissatisfaction with the therapy. The patient expected more weight loss after taking the medication for over a week, suggesting they are not happy with the results. This dissatisfaction may lead to nonadherence. A: Financial issues are a common reason for nonadherence, not necessarily linked to dissatisfaction with therapy. B: Time constraints can also impact adherence but do not directly indicate dissatisfaction with therapy. C: Forgetfulness is a common reason for nonadherence and does not necessarily imply dissatisfaction with therapy.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is taking Loracaserin (Belviq) for weight-loss. Which supplement taken by this patient would cause you to be alarmed?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: St. John's wort. St. John's wort is known to interact with many medications, including Loracaserin. It can decrease the effectiveness of Loracaserin, leading to reduced weight-loss benefits. Garlic (A), Ginseng (B), and Ginkgo biloba (D) do not have significant interactions with Loracaserin. Always consult a healthcare provider before taking any new supplements to prevent potential adverse effects.

Question 3 of 5

The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is A because it states that only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR. Step 2: This indicates that a single dose may not provide full immunity, necessitating a second dose. Step 3: By providing two doses, the likelihood of achieving immunity in a higher percentage of patients increases. Step 4: This ensures a more thorough and effective immunization process. Summary: Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of two doses for higher immunity rates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific need for two MMR doses for optimal immunization effectiveness.

Question 4 of 5

Which mechanism of action or pharmacological action is best associated with sitagliptin (januvia) and saxagliptin (onglyza)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sitagliptin and saxagliptin are both DDP-4 inhibitors. 2. DDP-4 inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme DDP-4, which degrades incretin hormones. 3. Incretin hormones increase insulin release and decrease glucagon secretion. 4. This results in improved blood sugar control in patients with type 2 diabetes. Summary: A: Binds PPAR-Gamma - Incorrect, as sitagliptin and saxagliptin do not bind PPAR-Gamma. B: Decreases insulin resistance - Incorrect, as DDP-4 inhibitors primarily work on incretin hormones. C: Increases insulin sensitivity - Incorrect, as the main action of DDP-4 inhibitors is through incretin hormones, not directly on insulin sensitivity.

Question 5 of 5

Bethanechol:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Bethanechol is a muscarinic receptor agonist that increases detrusor muscle tone to promote bladder emptying. This is its primary pharmacological action. Choice A is incorrect because Bethanechol does not affect LDL cholesterol levels. Choice C is incorrect because Bethanechol does not have a significant effect on bronchial airway constriction. Choice D is incorrect because Bethanechol does not decrease gastric acid secretion.

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