ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which patient should be monitored most closely for dehydration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the 50-year-old with an ileostomy, should be monitored most closely for dehydration. Patients with an ileostomy have a higher risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss through the stoma. Monitoring their fluid intake, output, electrolyte levels, and signs of dehydration is crucial to prevent complications. The other choices are less likely to experience severe dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus may be at risk for dehydration, but it is not as high a risk as the patient with an ileostomy. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma and the 28-year-old with a broken femur are not as directly related to dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy.
Question 2 of 9
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a myocardial infarction. During the admission history, the nurse learns that the client also has hypertension and progressive systemic sclerosis. For a client with this disease, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. Myocardial infarction, hypertension, and progressive systemic sclerosis can lead to impaired circulation and skin breakdown. Clients with these conditions are at risk for pressure ulcers due to decreased blood flow and compromised skin integrity. The other options, B: Imbalanced nutrition, C: Constipation, and D: Ineffective thermoregulation, do not directly relate to the client's conditions or the potential complications associated with them. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be A: Risk for impaired skin integrity.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer’s solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.
Question 4 of 9
A client with stage II ovarian cancer undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo- oopherectomy with tumor secretion, omentectomy, appendectomy, and lymphadenopathy. During the second postoperative day, which of the following assessment findings would raise concern in the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Shallow breathing and increasing lethargy. This could indicate a potential complication such as respiratory distress or postoperative infection. Shallow breathing may suggest respiratory compromise, while increasing lethargy could be a sign of systemic infection or inadequate oxygenation. A: Abdominal pain is common postoperatively and can be managed with pain medication. B: Serous drainage from the incision is normal and expected in the early postoperative period. C: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common after abdominal surgery due to anesthesia and manipulation of the bowel; it typically resolves as the patient recovers. In summary, the other options are common postoperative findings, while shallow breathing and increasing lethargy are concerning signs that require immediate attention.
Question 5 of 9
A client diagnosed with DIC is ordered heparin. What is the reason for this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent clot formation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. In DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation), there is excessive clotting throughout the body, leading to organ damage. By administering heparin, we aim to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not increase clot formation; it works to inhibit clotting. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase blood flow to target organs. Choice D is also incorrect as heparin does not decrease blood flow to target organs; its primary role is anticoagulation.
Question 6 of 9
The couple with the lowest risk of having a child with sickle cell disease is the one in which the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. The disease is caused by inheriting two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene (HbS). In choice D, the father is HbA (normal) and the mother is HbS (carrier). This combination ensures that the child will inherit one normal gene and one abnormal gene, making them a carrier like the mother but not affected by the disease. Choices A, B, and C all involve at least one parent who carries the HbS gene, increasing the risk of the child having sickle cell disease.
Question 7 of 9
A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and extremities rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking is classified as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Generalized seizure. This type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain from the onset, leading to loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic jerking. It is characterized by widespread, synchronized electrical discharges. A: Focal seizures start in one area of the brain, leading to localized symptoms without loss of consciousness. B: Jacksonian seizures are a type of focal seizure characterized by a progression of jerking movements from one body part to another. D: Partial seizures involve only one part of the brain, leading to localized symptoms or altered consciousness without loss of awareness.
Question 8 of 9
A client reports difficulty breathing, stating, 'I can’t catch my breath.' What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because measuring oxygen saturation will provide objective data to assess the client's respiratory status accurately. This step is crucial in identifying the severity of the client's breathing difficulty and determining the appropriate intervention. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (B) may worsen the client's condition if there is an underlying respiratory problem. Simply documenting the client's statement (C) without immediate action can delay necessary interventions. Providing oxygen without further assessment (D) can be harmful if the client's oxygen saturation is already high. Overall, option A is the most appropriate as it involves a proactive and evidence-based approach to address the client's reported breathing difficulty.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse develops a nursing diagnostic statement for a patient with a medical diagnosis of pneumonia with chest x-ray results of lower lobe infiltrates. Which nursing diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates. The rationale is that pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs. This directly affects gas exchange. Choice A is incorrect because ineffective breathing pattern is a broad nursing diagnosis that does not specifically address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange in pneumonia. Choice B is incorrect as the risk of infection related to the chest x-ray procedure is unrelated to the patient's current condition of pneumonia. Choice C is also incorrect as dehydration does not directly correlate with the patient's diagnosis of pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.