ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which patient should be monitored most closely for dehydration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the 50-year-old with an ileostomy, should be monitored most closely for dehydration. Patients with an ileostomy have a higher risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss through the stoma. Monitoring their fluid intake, output, electrolyte levels, and signs of dehydration is crucial to prevent complications. The other choices are less likely to experience severe dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy. The 72-year-old with diabetes mellitus may be at risk for dehydration, but it is not as high a risk as the patient with an ileostomy. The 19-year-old with chronic asthma and the 28-year-old with a broken femur are not as directly related to dehydration compared to the patient with an ileostomy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable, such as vital signs. Respirations of 16 are a specific numerical measurement that can be quantified. This makes choice C the correct answer as it is factual and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D are subjective data, as they rely on the patient's feelings or experiences, which are open to interpretation and not measurable. Therefore, the nurse should report choice C as objective data as it provides concrete information for assessment and decision-making.
Question 3 of 9
Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Chorea is a hallmark feature of Huntington's disease, caused by damage to the basal ganglia. Intellectual decline includes cognitive impairments such as memory loss and executive dysfunction. Emotional disturbances involve mood swings, irritability, and apathy. Therefore, all three manifestations are commonly seen in individuals with Huntington's disease, making D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key clinical features of Huntington's disease.
Question 4 of 9
The physician orders tests to determine if a client has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which test result confirms SLE?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: An above-normal anti-deoxyribonucleic acid. In SLE, the body produces antibodies against its own DNA, leading to the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies. Elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibodies are specific to SLE, confirming the diagnosis. A: Increased total serum complement levels are seen in SLE due to complement activation but are not specific to SLE. C: Negative antinuclear antibody test is not consistent with SLE, as ANA positivity is common in SLE. D: Negative lupus erythematosus cell test is not specific to SLE as lupus erythematosus cells are not always present.
Question 5 of 9
. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse develops a nursing diagnostic statement for a patient with a medical diagnosis of pneumonia with chest x-ray results of lower lobe infiltrates. Which nursing diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates because pneumonia causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, leading to impaired gas exchange. The nurse correctly identified the underlying respiratory issue. A: Ineffective breathing pattern related to pneumonia is incorrect as it focuses on the pattern of breathing rather than the physiological problem causing the breathing difficulty. B: Risk for infection related to chest x-ray procedure is incorrect as the patient already has a diagnosis of pneumonia, so the focus should be on managing the existing condition. C: Risk for deficient fluid volume related to dehydration is incorrect as there is no indication of dehydration in the question stem. In summary, the nurse's diagnosis of Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes is the most appropriate as it addresses the respiratory issue caused by pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.
Question 7 of 9
When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, which cranial nerve is being tested?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The cranial nerve responsible for facial expression is CN VII, the facial nerve. 2. When a neurologist asks a patient to smile, they are testing the function of CN VII. 3. CN II (optic nerve) is responsible for vision, not facial expression. 4. CN X (vagus nerve) is responsible for various functions like heart rate and digestion, not facial expression. 5. CN XI (accessory nerve) is responsible for shoulder movement, not facial expression. Summary: Testing a patient's ability to smile involves assessing the function of CN VII, the facial nerve. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different functions and not responsible for controlling facial muscles.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse interprets this as?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse interprets this as respiratory alkalosis because the patient is likely experiencing hyperventilation, leading to a decrease in CO2 levels and respiratory alkalosis. This is indicated by an increase in pH and a decrease in PaCO2 on arterial blood gas analysis. Metabolic acidosis (choice B) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, not seen in this scenario. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is characterized by high PaCO2 levels and low pH, which is not the case here. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff factors makes it important for the nurse to provide special care to older clients with an immune system disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related changes. Older clients are more susceptible to immune system disorders due to age-related changes such as a weakened immune response, increased inflammation, and decreased production of immune cells. Providing special care is important to address these specific vulnerabilities. Incorrect choices: B: Use of multiple drugs (Polypharmacy) - While polypharmacy can impact the immune system, it is not the primary factor for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders. C: Poor diet - While diet plays a role in overall health, it is not the main factor necessitating special care for older clients with immune system disorders. D: Reduced activity levels - Although physical activity is important for overall health, reduced activity levels are not the primary reason for providing special care to older clients with immune system disorders.