Which patient problem is a priority for patients receiving epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitors commonly cause skin-related side effects, such as rash, dryness, and paronychia (nail inflammation). These side effects can lead to tissue injury and discomfort, impacting the patient's quality of life. While bone marrow suppression and reduced platelet activity are concerns with other chemotherapies, they are less common with EGFR inhibitors. Alopecia is also less frequently associated with these drugs. The nurse should prioritize monitoring and managing skin-related side effects to prevent complications and ensure patient comfort.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by increasing the activity of antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of clotting factors. In cases of excessive bleeding or overdose with Heparin, protamine can be administered to neutralize its anticoagulant effects. Protamine works by binding to heparin to form a stable complex, thereby reversing the anticoagulant activity of Heparin. It is important for healthcare providers to be familiar with the antidotes for various medications to manage potential complications effectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Metformin (Glucophage) is a biguanide medication used to manage type 2 diabetes. While it is generally well-tolerated, one of its rare but serious adverse effects is lactic acidosis, a condition characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the bloodstream. This can occur in patients with renal impairment or other risk factors. Hypoglycemia is uncommon with metformin alone, and GI distress, though common, is not life-threatening. Somnolence is not typically associated with metformin. Therefore, lactic acidosis is the most specific and serious adverse effect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Aspirin, or acetylsalicylic acid, is metabolized to salicylic acid and acetic acid, not acetone, making the hydrolysis statement false. At low doses, it follows first-order kinetics, where elimination rate is proportional to concentration, a true statement reflecting its predictable clearance under therapeutic levels. It's primarily conjugated in the liver (e.g., to salicyluric acid), but excreted mainly via urine, not bile, so that's false. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) by acetylating it, unlike reversible NSAIDs, making that option false. The correct answer highlights aspirin's pharmacokinetic behavior at low doses, critical for its use in analgesia or cardioprotection, where steady-state effects depend on consistent elimination, contrasting with zero-order kinetics at overdose levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Mannitol works osmotically, increasing urine flow without binding to receptors. Others rely on receptor or enzyme-based actions.