ATI RN
Use of Psychotropic Medications Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which patient outcome is directly associated with the goals of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because identifying suicidal feelings promotes open communication and trust in the nurse-patient relationship, facilitating effective intervention. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on behavior towards others, not the therapeutic relationship. Choice C emphasizes social interaction, which is important but not directly tied to therapeutic outcomes. Choice D is about physical health, which is not the primary goal of a therapeutic relationship.
Question 2 of 5
Intergenerational conflict may arise in immigrant families because the process of acculturation may be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Acculturation involves adapting to a new culture. Step 2: Children often adapt more easily than adults due to flexibility. Step 3: Children's exposure to the new culture from a young age helps. Step 4: This ease for children can lead to intergenerational conflict. Summary: Ignoring cultural beliefs (A), traumatic experiences (B), and assimilation (D) do not directly address why acculturation may be easier for children, making them incorrect choices.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is being assessed for range-of-joint movement. The nurse asks him to move his arm in toward the center of his body. This movement is called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Adduction. Adduction refers to movement toward the center of the body. When the nurse asks the patient to move his arm in toward the center of his body, this action involves adduction. Flexion (A) is bending a joint, abduction (B) is moving away from the center of the body, and extension (D) is straightening a joint. Therefore, adduction is the most appropriate term for the described movement in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A woman, 68 years of age, presents with blunted affect; she seems indifferent to her surroundings and says that she has no sense of pleasure in life. She complains that she hears voices and fears that she is about to be killed. She is admitted to the acute psychiatric ward, where she is given an antipsychotic –Drug A. After treatment, her hallucinations and paranoia resolve, but she complains that she has a tremor and cannot move about quickly. After a change in her medication to Drug B, all of her symptoms improved. She does not need to have weekly blood tests. Which one of the following pairs most likely corresponds to Drug A and Drug B?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Haloperidol Olanzapine. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known for its effectiveness in treating psychosis but can commonly cause extrapyramidal side effects like tremors. In this case, Drug A is likely Haloperidol, which improved the patient's hallucinations and paranoia but caused tremors. Drug B, Olanzapine, is a second-generation antipsychotic that is effective in treating psychosis without the same risk of extrapyramidal side effects, making it a suitable alternative for this patient. Option A, Fluphenazine Clozapine, is incorrect because Clozapine is not associated with the extrapyramidal side effects seen in the patient. Option C, Risperidone Sertraline, is incorrect as Sertraline is an antidepressant and not an antipsychotic. Option D, Thioridazine Clozapine, is incorrect because Thioridazine is more commonly associated with cardiac side effects rather than tremors. Educationally, understanding the differences between first-generation and second-generation antipsychotics is crucial in selecting appropriate treatments for patients while considering side effect profiles. This case highlights the importance of individualized medication selection to balance symptom relief and side effect management in psychiatric care.
Question 5 of 5
A 17-year-old male diagnosed with schizophrenia was treated with Fluphenazine. Three days later, he developed a high body temperature and lead-pipe rigidity. The appropriate treatment for this patient would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Discontinue Fluphenazine and administer dantrolene. The symptoms described - high body temperature and lead-pipe rigidity - are indicative of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like Fluphenazine. Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant used to treat NMS by reducing muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. Option A is incorrect because haloperidol, another antipsychotic medication, can worsen NMS symptoms. Option B is incorrect as adding an anticholinergic can lead to further complications. Option C is incorrect as benzodiazepines do not directly treat NMS. Educationally, understanding the side effects of psychotropic medications is crucial for healthcare professionals working with individuals with mental health conditions. Recognizing and managing NMS promptly is essential to prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes. This question highlights the importance of monitoring for adverse drug reactions and taking appropriate actions to ensure patient safety.