ATI RN
Quizlet on Reproductive System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60. Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
Question 2 of 5
A patient in the sexually transmitted infection clinic has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test, but no chancre is visible on assessment. The nurse will plan to send specimens for
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FT-Abs). This test is more specific and sensitive than VDRL or RPR. FT-Abs can detect antibodies to Treponema pallidum, providing confirmation of syphilis infection when VDRL is positive without visible chancres. Gram stain (A) is used for bacterial identification but not specific for syphilis. Cytologic studies (B) are not typically used for syphilis diagnosis. RPR (C) is another non-specific test like VDRL.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client for reproductive health problems. What would be the priority assessments? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Bleeding is a priority assessment because it can indicate serious reproductive health issues such as ectopic pregnancy or cervical cancer. Pain and masses are important assessments, but bleeding takes precedence due to its potential urgency. Sexual orientation is not a priority assessment for reproductive health problems as it does not directly impact the client's immediate physical health.
Question 4 of 5
The fructose in semen is secreted by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the seminal vesicles. Seminal vesicles secrete fructose in semen to provide energy for sperm motility. This process occurs after sperm leave the epididymis and seminiferous tubules, ruling out choices A and B. The prostate glands contribute to the alkaline fluid in semen, not fructose, eliminating choice D. Therefore, choice C is correct due to its role in providing energy for sperm function.
Question 5 of 5
Identify the CORRECT strategy to achieve external fertilization.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct strategy for external fertilization is to have eggs and sperm shed simultaneously into water. This allows the gametes to meet and fertilize outside of the organism's body. This method is effective in aquatic environments where the chances of gametes coming into contact are increased. Choice A is incorrect as it describes internal fertilization. Choice B is irrelevant to the process of external fertilization. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of egg and sperm release does not determine the success of external fertilization.