ATI RN
Gastrointestinal Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for the absorption of water?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The large intestine is primarily responsible for the absorption of water in the digestive system. It reabsorbs water and electrolytes from the indigestible food residue, forming feces. The small intestine is more involved in nutrient absorption. The stomach mainly digests food, while the duodenum is the initial segment of the small intestine where most digestion occurs. The large intestine's main role in water absorption makes it the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assisting a group of clients in an outpatient clinic. For which of the following clients should the nurse anticipate scheduling a colonoscopy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because having a first-degree relative who died of colon cancer puts the client at an increased risk for developing colon cancer. This indicates the need for a colonoscopy for early detection and preventive measures. A: A 56-year-old who had a colonoscopy 6 years ago is not a priority for immediate scheduling. B: A 34-year-old with new onset constipation may require further assessment but not necessarily a colonoscopy. D: A 51-year-old attending an annual physical exam without additional risk factors does not warrant immediate colonoscopy.
Question 3 of 5
Peptic ulcer disease may be caused by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. H. pylori is a common bacterium known to cause peptic ulcer disease by damaging the protective lining of the stomach and small intestine. This bacterium is a major risk factor for developing peptic ulcers. Clostridium difficile (B) is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea, not peptic ulcers. Candida albicans (C) is a fungal infection that can cause oral thrush or vaginal yeast infections, not peptic ulcers. Staphylococcus aureus (D) can cause skin infections, food poisoning, or pneumonia, but it is not a common cause of peptic ulcers.
Question 4 of 5
The outer tunic of the esophagus grades into the surrounding connective tissue and is called the tunica
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: adventitia. The esophagus lacks a serosa layer, so its outermost layer is called adventitia, which blends with surrounding connective tissue. The mucosa (A) is the innermost layer, submucosa (B) is between mucosa and muscular layers, and serosa (C) is a serous membrane covering organs in the abdominal cavity. Therefore, in the esophagus, the outer tunic is termed adventitia due to its connection with the surrounding tissues.
Question 5 of 5
Out of a normal adult's 32 teeth, how many are molars?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12. Molars are the broad, flat teeth at the back of the mouth used for grinding food. In an adult, there are 12 molars - 3 on each side of the upper and lower jaws. This totals to 12 out of 32 teeth. Therefore, the correct answer is D. A: 2 - This is incorrect as it is too low for the number of molars in an adult. B: 4 - This is incorrect as it is too low for the number of molars in an adult. C: 8 - This is incorrect as it is too low for the number of molars in an adult.