Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before sputum collection, it is crucial to use a clean container to prevent specimen contamination. This step is essential to ensure accurate test results and to avoid introducing external particles or bacteria into the sample. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes soiled is not a standard practice before collection. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine after collection can introduce unnecessary substances into the specimen. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum needed should be determined by the healthcare provider, not the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Broccoli. Broccoli is a good source of potassium. Increased excretion can be related to the dietary intake of nutrients like potassium. Choice A, Potassium, is a nutrient obtained from broccoli but is not directly related to increased excretion. Choice B, Increased excretion, is a process rather than a nutrient obtained from broccoli, making it an incorrect choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Older men and women are at a higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors like polypharmacy, changes in metabolism, and physiological changes associated with aging. Infants are less likely to be exposed to a wide range of medications, reducing their risk. People with diabetes and women of childbearing age may have specific nutrient needs or considerations, but they are not typically at a higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Duodenum. Peptic ulcers are most commonly found in the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine just beyond the stomach. Understanding why the duodenum is the most common location for peptic ulcers requires some knowledge of the digestive system and the factors that contribute to ulcer formation. The stomach contains hydrochloric acid and enzymes that aid in digestion. The duodenum is where partially digested food mixes with bile and pancreatic enzymes to continue the digestive process. The duodenum is exposed to acidic chyme from the stomach, which can lead to ulcer formation when the protective mechanisms of the mucosa are compromised. Option A) Esophagus is incorrect because peptic ulcers typically do not occur in the esophagus. The esophagus is not designed to handle the acidic environment that can lead to ulcer formation. Option B) Stomach is incorrect because while peptic ulcers can occur in the stomach, they are more commonly found in the duodenum. Stomach ulcers are often associated with Helicobacter pylori infection or the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Option D) Jejunum is incorrect because peptic ulcers rarely occur in the jejunum. The acidic environment and digestive processes in the stomach and duodenum make them more susceptible to ulcer formation. Educationally, understanding the specific locations where peptic ulcers are most likely to occur helps healthcare professionals in diagnosing and treating patients effectively. It also reinforces the importance of factors such as mucosal protection, acid secretion, and bacterial infections in ulcer development.