ATI RN
NCLEX Questions Skin Integrity and Wound Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which oral antiviral drug that is commonly prescribed for influenza A and B works by preventing the release of newly formed virus?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oseltamivir (Tamiflu). Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor, which works by preventing the release of newly formed virus particles from infected cells. This stops the spread of the virus in the body. Rimantadine and Amantadine (choices A and D) are M2 ion channel blockers that prevent the virus from entering the host cell. Zanamivir (choice B) is also a neuraminidase inhibitor like Oseltamivir, but it is administered via inhalation instead of orally. Therefore, the correct choice is Oseltamivir as it targets the release of newly formed virus particles, distinguishing it from the other options.
Question 2 of 5
Which intervention should the nurse carry out to manage fever in a client with pneumonia? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer antipyretic medications. Antipyretics help reduce fever by acting on the hypothalamus to lower the body's temperature set point. This intervention is effective and commonly used in managing fever in pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect as increasing room temperature can worsen the fever. Choice C is incorrect because fluid restriction can lead to dehydration, which is harmful during fever. Choice D is incorrect as using ice packs and tepid baths can cause temperature fluctuations, which are not ideal for fever management.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with septicemia. What assessment by the nurse best addresses the potential for ineffective peripheral perfusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor for cyanosis. In septicemia, inadequate peripheral perfusion can lead to cyanosis due to decreased oxygen delivery. Cyanosis is a late sign of compromised perfusion. Assessing heart rate (choice A) may indicate changes in cardiac function but does not directly assess peripheral perfusion. Monitoring temperature (choice B) can reveal fever, which is common in septicemia, but does not directly assess perfusion. Checking pupil reactions (choice C) is important but does not specifically address peripheral perfusion. Therefore, monitoring for cyanosis is the most direct way to assess for ineffective peripheral perfusion in a client with septicemia.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse in an inner city clinic is providing a health screening for a homeless client with a history of drug abuse. The client has a chronic nonproductive cough. For which should the nurse expect to screen this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Given the client's history of drug abuse and chronic nonproductive cough, the nurse should screen for TB due to its high prevalence among homeless individuals and its association with respiratory symptoms. TB can easily spread in crowded environments like homeless shelters. Herpes zoster (A) is a viral infection causing a painful rash, not typically associated with a chronic cough. Sickle cell disease (B) is a genetic blood disorder, unrelated to the client's symptoms. Sick sinus syndrome (C) is a cardiac condition characterized by abnormal heart rhythms, not typically presenting with a chronic cough. In summary, TB is the most likely condition to screen for based on the client's history and symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
The most common source for bacteria that cause a urinary tract infection is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the mucous membranes of the perineal area, located near the urinary tract, are a common entry point for bacteria causing UTIs. Bacteria from the perineal area can easily travel to the urinary tract and cause an infection. A catheter (A) may introduce bacteria but is not the most common source. Hands (C) can transfer bacteria, but the perineal area is more direct. Clothing (D) is unlikely to be a primary source of UTI-causing bacteria.