ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which ones of the following symptoms are NOT typical for botulism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are not typical symptoms of botulism. Botulism is characterized by descending, flaccid paralysis (choice A), dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and speaking (choice B), and blurred vision, diplopia (choice D). These symptoms result from the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are more commonly associated with infections or other conditions, not botulism.
Question 2 of 9
Differentiating media are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Endo, Gassner, and Levin are all examples of differential media used in microbiology. These media contain specific components that allow for the differentiation of different types of microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics or biochemical reactions. Lowenstein-Jensen and Petraniani (choice A) are selective media for mycobacteria, not differential. Apoholate-citrate agar and Brilliant-green phenol-red Lactose agar (choice B) are selective media for Salmonella and E. coli, respectively, not differential. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it includes examples of differential media commonly used for microbial identification.
Question 3 of 9
Virulence
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism, which can vary and is not a constant characteristic. It can be measured using LD50, which is the lethal dose that kills 50% of the test population. Therefore, all the statements in options A, B, and C are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of virulence.
Question 4 of 9
Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.
Question 5 of 9
After continuous treatment with antibiotics a patient got symptoms of stomatitis. Examination of specimens of oral mucous membrane revealed some oval polymorphous Gram-positive microorganisms arranged in clusters. What microorganism may be the cause of such manifestations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: S.aureus. Stomatitis is commonly caused by S.aureus due to its ability to form clusters of oval polymorphous Gram-positive microorganisms. S.aureus is known to colonize the oral mucous membrane and can cause infections, especially after prolonged antibiotic use. Explanation for other choices: A: С.albicans - Candida albicans is a fungus commonly associated with oral thrush, not typically causing stomatitis. B: C.perfringens - Clostridium perfringens is a bacterium associated with food poisoning and gas gangrene, not commonly causing stomatitis. D: S.pyogenes - Streptococcus pyogenes is known to cause strep throat and skin infections, but not typically associated with stomatitis.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as whooping cough?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bordetella pertussis. This bacterium causes whooping cough by infecting the respiratory tract. It produces toxins that lead to severe coughing fits characteristic of the disease. Clostridium botulinum (A) causes botulism, Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) causes pneumonia, and Neisseria meningitidis (D) causes meningitis, not whooping cough. B. pertussis is the only bacterium specifically associated with whooping cough.
Question 7 of 9
The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Linnaeus. Linnaeus developed the binomial system of nomenclature in the 18th century. This system uses a two-part naming system consisting of the genus and species name to classify and identify organisms. Linnaeus's contribution revolutionized the way organisms are named and classified in the field of biology. Other choices are incorrect as Pasteur is known for his work in microbiology, Martini is not associated with the development of binomial nomenclature, and Jenner is known for developing the smallpox vaccine.
Question 8 of 9
Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Louis Pasteur. He conducted experiments that definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation through his famous swan-neck flask experiment. By showing that microorganisms only appeared in the broth when exposed to air, Pasteur demonstrated that they did not arise spontaneously. John Needham's experiments were inconclusive, Joseph Lister is known for his contributions to antiseptic surgery, and Robert Koch is credited with developing Koch's postulates for identifying the causative agents of diseases, but neither of them directly contributed to ending the controversy about spontaneous generation.
Question 9 of 9
In serologic reactions used in virology, a diagnostic antibody response should be taken into account if:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a fourfold increase in titer in the second serum sample indicates a significant rise in specific antibodies, which is crucial for diagnosing viral infections accurately. This increase is considered significant in serologic reactions as it shows a strong antibody response to the virus. A: A threshold increase may not be substantial enough to confirm a diagnostic antibody response. B: Dismissing the increase in titer would overlook important diagnostic information. C: A twofold increase may not be as indicative of a strong antibody response compared to a fourfold increase.