Which ones of the following symptoms are NOT typical for botulism

Questions 79

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which ones of the following symptoms are NOT typical for botulism

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are not typical symptoms of botulism. Botulism is characterized by descending, flaccid paralysis (choice A), dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and speaking (choice B), and blurred vision, diplopia (choice D). These symptoms result from the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are more commonly associated with infections or other conditions, not botulism.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed (Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) can produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria like E. coli and P. aeruginosa. Staphylococcus aureus, a Gram-positive bacterium, can also produce endotoxins called superantigens that can trigger a massive immune response leading to septic shock. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct. Choices A, B, and C alone are incorrect because they do not account for the fact that all three bacteria listed produce endotoxins that can cause septic shock.

Question 3 of 9

Gram-negative diplococci were isolated from a urethral discharge in a male patient with painful urination. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is a gram-negative diplococci commonly associated with gonorrhea, which presents with symptoms like painful urination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is known to infect the urethra in males. Escherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are all gram-negative bacteria, but they are not typically associated with urethral discharge or gonorrhea. E. coli is commonly associated with urinary tract infections, Proteus vulgaris with wound infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae with pneumonia and other respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and the characteristics of the bacteria, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most appropriate causative agent in this case.

Question 4 of 9

Aflatoxins are produced by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genus Aspergillus. Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced by certain species of fungi, particularly Aspergillus species. Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus are well-known producers of aflatoxins. These fungi can contaminate crops such as peanuts, corn, and tree nuts, leading to potential health risks. Cryptococcus (A), Actinomyces (B), and Streptococcus (C) are not known to produce aflatoxins. It is important to be aware of the sources and implications of aflatoxin contamination to ensure food safety and public health.

Question 5 of 9

The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention, treatment, and/or diagnosis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: pharmacotherapeutics. Pharmacotherapeutics focuses on the selection and use of drugs for disease prevention, treatment, and diagnosis. It involves determining the most effective and safe medications for specific conditions based on patient factors. Toxicology (B) is the study of the adverse effects of chemicals, including drugs. Pharmacokinetics (C) focuses on drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in the body. Pharmacy (D) involves the preparation and dispensing of medications, but does not specifically address drug selection and application for disease management. Therefore, pharmacotherapeutics is the most suitable discipline for addressing the use of drugs in disease management.

Question 6 of 9

Cell mediated immunity has a leading role in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity plays a crucial role in combating infections with intracellular pathogens by activating T cells to directly kill infected cells. Facultative and obligate intracellular pathogens, such as viruses and some bacteria, require cell-mediated immunity for effective clearance. Option A is correct due to the specificity of this immune response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are primarily associated with humoral immunity involving antibodies and not T cell responses against intracellular pathogens.

Question 7 of 9

A child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the injection of tetanus toxoid. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was administered by Bezredka method. What mechanism underlies this method of desensitization of the body?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells. The Bezredka method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the antigen (tetanus toxoid) to desensitize the body and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, thereby reducing the release of allergic mediators like histamine. This prevents the cascade of events that lead to anaphylactic shock. Choice B (Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells) is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not block mediator synthesis but rather prevents the release of mediators by binding IgE. Choice C (Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen) is incorrect as the Bezredka method does not primarily focus on inducing immune tolerance but rather on preventing anaphylactic reactions. Choice D (Stimulation of the synthesis of antigen-specific IgG) is incorrect because the Bezredka method targets IgE antibodies on mast cells

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following statements for S. Aureus is FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Staphylococcus aureus can develop resistance to penicillin over time due to the production of beta-lactamase enzymes. This resistance mechanism makes it no longer susceptible to penicillin. The other choices are correct: B) S. aureus can produce beta hemolysis, C) it produces various toxins like hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxins, and D) it shows a positive catalase reaction due to the presence of catalase enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following best describes the Gram stain process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Gram stain process involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization and counterstaining. The primary differentiation is based on the cell wall structure, distinguishing bacteria into Gram-positive (retain purple color) and Gram-negative (lose purple color). This classification is crucial in microbiology for treatment decisions as it correlates with different antibiotic susceptibilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Gram stain process does not primarily focus on flagella, shape, or motility of bacteria.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days