Which one of the following statements is true of Munchausen syndrome by proxy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Munchausen syndrome by proxy, the patient only exhibits symptoms under the direct care or supervision of the abuser. This is because the abuser intentionally causes or fabricates symptoms in the victim to gain attention or sympathy. In contrast, the other choices are incorrect. A is incorrect because the injury is inflicted by the abuser, not self-inflicted by the patient. C is incorrect as the caregiver is the one perpetrating the abuse. D is incorrect because the abuser is often overly involved and manipulative, rather than inattentive and uncaring.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exercise and weight loss. The American College of Rheumatology recommends this intervention as first-line therapy for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis due to its proven benefits in reducing pain, improving joint function, and overall quality of life. Exercise helps strengthen muscles around the joints, improve flexibility, and reduce stiffness. Weight loss can also alleviate pressure on the joints, especially in weight-bearing joints. A: Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatoid arthritis - This is not the first-line therapy but rather a step in the diagnostic process. B: NSAID use at the lowest effective dose - While NSAIDs may help with pain management, they are not recommended as the first-line therapy due to potential side effects. C: Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day - Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief, but it is not as effective as exercise and weight loss in managing osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis symptoms

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vomiting and pain. Small bowel obstruction typically leads to vomiting due to the blockage preventing food from passing through. Pain occurs as the intestine tries to push against the obstruction. Nausea and diarrhea (choice A) are more common in large bowel obstructions. Hematemesis and bloody stool (choice C) suggest bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract. Indigestion and anorexia (choice D) are not specific to small bowel obstruction. Therefore, the combination of vomiting and pain is indicative of small bowel obstruction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.