Which one of the following statements about the cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the structure of the cytoplasmic membrane in gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is fundamentally different. Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, while gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane with an additional outer membrane. This key difference is crucial for various functions such as antibiotic resistance and nutrient transport. Rationale for the incorrect choices: A: Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a double-layered one. C: Prokaryotes do have a cytoplasmic membrane, which is essential for maintaining cell integrity and regulating the passage of molecules. D: Gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a three-layered one.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bacillus cereus is known to cause food poisoning due to the production of toxins in contaminated food. It is not the causative agent of anthrax or endocarditis. The correct answer is B because Bacillus cereus is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It's essential to understand the specific characteristics and pathogenicity of Bacillus cereus to differentiate it from other bacterial infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A is incorrect because whooping cough resurgence is mainly due to decreased vaccine immunity, not changing antigenicity. B is correct as P. aeruginosa can indeed cause infections with blue-green pus due to its pigment production. C is correct as H. influenzae type b capsule is a virulence factor contributing to invasive disease. D is correct as Legionella infection is acquired via inhalation of contaminated water aerosols. Therefore, A is incorrect as the rise in whooping cough is not due to changing antigenicity but vaccine immunity decline.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (15-Oct) because boiling items for at least 15 minutes is necessary to effectively kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses. This duration ensures that the water reaches a high enough temperature to destroy harmful microorganisms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of time for the water to reach the necessary temperature to effectively kill bacteria and viruses. Shorter durations may not be effective in ensuring food safety.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum. The symptoms described in the question, such as bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils, and difficulty reading, are indicative of tetanus infection. The source of infection could be the scratch on the knee, which allowed the tetanus bacteria to enter the body. The most appropriate therapy for tetanus is the administration of antitetanus serum to neutralize the tetanus toxin. Antibotulinic serum (choice A) is not appropriate as it is used for botulism, which presents differently. Disintoxication (choice B) is too general and does not address the specific cause of the symptoms. Antibiotics (choice C) are not effective in treating tetanus because it is caused by a toxin, not a bacterial infection. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer antitetanus serum to the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: kidneys. The kidneys are the primary organs responsible for excreting drugs from the body through urine. They filter the blood and remove waste products, including drugs, through the process of urine formation. The lungs primarily excrete gases and volatile substances, not drugs. The small intestines are mainly involved in absorption of nutrients, not drug excretion. The spleen is part of the immune system and does not play a direct role in drug excretion.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is considered a reemerging disease due to the increase in drug-resistant strains, high global prevalence, and challenges in diagnosis and treatment. This is supported by global health organizations' reports on the resurgence of TB cases. A: AIDS is not considered a reemerging disease as there has been significant progress in HIV prevention and treatment. B: Ebola outbreaks are sporadic and localized, not considered reemerging on a global scale. C: West Nile virus outbreaks occur periodically, but it is not considered a reemerging disease compared to TB.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are known to form spores. 2. Spore formation is a mechanism for survival in harsh conditions. 3. Both bacteria are capable of causing severe diseases in humans. Summary: - Choice A and B are incorrect because each bacteria listed is capable of spore formation. - Choice D is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned can form spores to survive extreme conditions.