ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which one of the following statements about the cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes is true?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the structure of the cytoplasmic membrane in gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is fundamentally different. Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, while gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane with an additional outer membrane. This key difference is crucial for various functions such as antibiotic resistance and nutrient transport. Rationale for the incorrect choices: A: Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a double-layered one. C: Prokaryotes do have a cytoplasmic membrane, which is essential for maintaining cell integrity and regulating the passage of molecules. D: Gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a three-layered one.
Question 2 of 9
Boiling items in water for __________ minutes will kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (15-Oct) because boiling items for at least 15 minutes is necessary to effectively kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses. This duration ensures that the water reaches a high enough temperature to destroy harmful microorganisms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of time for the water to reach the necessary temperature to effectively kill bacteria and viruses. Shorter durations may not be effective in ensuring food safety.
Question 3 of 9
A 5-year-old kindergartener has diphtheria. To find the carriers of the disease among the kindergarten staff, samples of pharyngeal mucus were obtained from the employers. One of the employers had gram-positive bacilli in her sample. They were situated at an angle to each other and colored unevenly, when stained according to Loeffler. What method can confirm that this carrier is dangerous to other people?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxin production test. Rationale: 1. Diphtheria is caused by a toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. 2. To confirm if the carrier is dangerous, we need to test if they are producing the toxin. 3. The toxin production test directly assesses if the bacteria are producing the harmful toxin. 4. Positive results indicate the carrier is dangerous and can transmit the disease to others. Summary of other choices: B: Mouse neutralization test - Used to detect diphtheria antitoxin levels in blood, not to confirm if the carrier is dangerous. C: Immunofluorescence test - Used to detect specific antigens or antibodies, not directly related to confirming the carrier's danger. D: Complement fixation test - Measures immune response, not specific to toxin production confirmation.
Question 4 of 9
Routine investigation of microbiological sanitary condition of air in a hospital is performed once in 3 months. What microorganism is the sanitary indicator of air condition in an enclosed space?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: P.aeruginosa. This bacterium is commonly found in water and soil, making its presence in indoor air an indicator of poor sanitation. Step 1: P.aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen known to cause infections in hospitals. Step 2: Its presence in the air indicates potential contamination and poor air quality. Step 3: Regular monitoring of P.aeruginosa levels can help assess the effectiveness of sanitation measures. Summary: A, B, and C are not suitable indicators of air sanitation in an enclosed space as they are not typically associated with environmental contamination or poor air quality.
Question 5 of 9
What role do fimbriae play in bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fimbriae in bacteria are hair-like appendages that help in adhesion to surfaces. This is essential for colonization and infection. Fimbriae do not provide motility (flagella do), facilitate protein synthesis (ribosomes do), or help in endospore formation (specialized structures do). Adhesion is the primary function of fimbriae, allowing bacteria to stick to host cells or abiotic surfaces.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a key feature of anaerobic bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because anaerobic bacteria can grow in environments without oxygen. Anaerobic bacteria do not require oxygen for their metabolism and energy production. They can thrive in oxygen-deprived conditions by using alternative electron acceptors. Choice A is incorrect because anaerobic bacteria do not require oxygen to survive. Choice C is incorrect because anaerobic bacteria typically cannot survive in the presence of high concentrations of oxygen. Choice D is incorrect because anaerobic bacteria do not perform photosynthesis.
Question 7 of 9
A smear of streptobacillus preparation stained by Ozheshko method has been studied microscopically with oil immersion. What structural feature of the bacteria has been studied?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Structure of cell wall. When studying a bacterial smear stained by the Ozheshko method, the focus is on the cell wall structure. This staining method highlights the cell wall morphology, allowing for detailed examination. Flagella, spores, and capsules are not typically visualized using this staining method. Flagella require special staining techniques, spores are usually observed through specific staining methods like Schaeffer-Fulton, and capsules are not easily visualized with the Ozheshko staining method. Therefore, the structure of the cell wall is the most relevant feature to study in this context.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following pathogens has the widest infectious spectrum?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the rabies virus. Rabies virus has the widest infectious spectrum among the given choices because it can infect a wide range of mammals, including humans. This is due to its ability to infect nerve cells and spread throughout the central nervous system. The other choices have more limited infectious spectra. Anthrax bacillus primarily infects herbivores and humans, mumps virus infects mainly humans, and the causative agent of gonorrhea primarily infects humans through sexual contact. Therefore, the rabies virus is the correct answer as it has the broadest range of potential hosts.
Question 9 of 9
A 42-year-old patient with gastric ulcer has a disbalance between the aggressive and defensive factors. Which of the following factors contributes to the development of gastric ulcer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is a major cause of gastric ulcers by disrupting the balance between aggressive (acid, pepsin) and defensive (mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandins) factors in the stomach lining. H. pylori infection leads to inflammation, weakening the protective mucosal barrier, making the stomach more susceptible to damage. Choices B, C, and D are defensive factors that help protect the stomach lining and prevent ulcer formation, so they do not contribute to the development of gastric ulcers.