ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which one of the following statements about the cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes is true?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the structure of the cytoplasmic membrane in gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is fundamentally different. Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, while gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane with an additional outer membrane. This key difference is crucial for various functions such as antibiotic resistance and nutrient transport. Rationale for the incorrect choices: A: Gram-positive bacteria have a single-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a double-layered one. C: Prokaryotes do have a cytoplasmic membrane, which is essential for maintaining cell integrity and regulating the passage of molecules. D: Gram-negative bacteria have a double-layered cytoplasmic membrane, not a three-layered one.
Question 2 of 5
Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A is incorrect because whooping cough resurgence is mainly due to decreased vaccine immunity, not changing antigenicity. B is correct as P. aeruginosa can indeed cause infections with blue-green pus due to its pigment production. C is correct as H. influenzae type b capsule is a virulence factor contributing to invasive disease. D is correct as Legionella infection is acquired via inhalation of contaminated water aerosols. Therefore, A is incorrect as the rise in whooping cough is not due to changing antigenicity but vaccine immunity decline.
Question 3 of 5
Chlorhexidine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Chlorhexidine belongs to the group of biguanides, making choice A accurate. Step 2: It is commonly used for disinfection of hands, skin, and mucous membranes. Step 3: It has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity, making it widely applicable. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as chlorhexidine is not classified as an alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as chlorhexidine has various applications. Choice D is incorrect as chlorhexidine is generally safe for use with low toxicity.
Question 4 of 5
During a microscopy session, students examined sputum samples stained using Gram's method. Purple-stained diplococci with a capsule were observed. What microorganism is most likely present?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Purple-stained diplococci suggest Gram-positive cocci. 2. Capsule presence is a characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is known to form diplococci arrangements. 4. Therefore, the microorganism most likely present is Streptococcus pneumoniae. Summary: - B: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci. - C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a capsule producer. - D: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci or capsule producer.
Question 5 of 5
During an outbreak of cholera, a fecal smear revealed Gram-negative, comma-shaped, motile bacteria. What staining method would best confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining. This method is used to differentiate bacteria based on their cell wall composition. In cholera, the causative agent is Vibrio cholerae, which is Gram-negative. By performing Gram staining, the bacteria will appear pink/red under the microscope, confirming the presence of Gram-negative bacteria. Choice B: Neisser's staining is used for staining capsules of bacteria, not suitable for confirming cholera diagnosis. Choice C: Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, not for confirming cholera diagnosis. Choice D: Burri-Gins staining is not a standard staining method in microbiology and is not relevant for confirming cholera diagnosis.