ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.
Question 2 of 9
In serologic reactions used in virology, a diagnostic antibody response should be taken into account if:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a fourfold increase in titer in the second serum sample indicates a significant rise in specific antibodies, which is crucial for diagnosing viral infections accurately. This increase is considered significant in serologic reactions as it shows a strong antibody response to the virus. A: A threshold increase may not be substantial enough to confirm a diagnostic antibody response. B: Dismissing the increase in titer would overlook important diagnostic information. C: A twofold increase may not be as indicative of a strong antibody response compared to a fourfold increase.
Question 3 of 9
Which ones of the following symptoms are NOT typical for botulism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are not typical symptoms of botulism. Botulism is characterized by descending, flaccid paralysis (choice A), dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and speaking (choice B), and blurred vision, diplopia (choice D). These symptoms result from the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Chills, fever, and loss of consciousness are more commonly associated with infections or other conditions, not botulism.
Question 4 of 9
Which of these viruses is a laboratory product?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaccinia is a laboratory product used in smallpox vaccination. 2. Variola is the virus that causes smallpox, not a laboratory product. 3. Monkeypox is a naturally occurring virus, not a laboratory product. 4. Cowpox can be found in nature and is used in vaccine production, but it is not a laboratory product like Vaccinia.
Question 5 of 9
The bacteria that causes whooping cough is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. Whooping cough is caused by this bacteria, which specifically infects the respiratory tract. Bordetella pertussis produces toxins that lead to the characteristic symptoms of the disease. Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Streptococcus pneumoniae are not the causative agents of whooping cough. Haemophilus influenzae can cause respiratory infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with hospital-acquired infections, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and other respiratory infections, but none of these bacteria are responsible for whooping cough.
Question 6 of 9
Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: plasma coagulase. This enzyme is essential for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus as it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a protective barrier around the bacteria. This helps the bacteria evade the host's immune system. Beta lactamase (A) is not directly related to pathogenicity but rather resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics. Catalase (C) is produced by many bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus, but it is not a specific indicator of pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as plasma coagulase is indeed an important criterion for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 7 of 9
Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.
Question 8 of 9
Infections of the reproductive tract resulting from the introduction of microorganisms through a medical procedure are called:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: iatrogenic infections. Iatrogenic infections refer to infections caused by medical or surgical treatment, including procedures that introduce microorganisms into the body. In this case, infections of the reproductive tract caused by medical procedures fall under this category. A: Chronic infections do not specifically refer to infections caused by medical procedures. B: Endogenous infections arise from organisms already present in or on the body, not introduced through medical procedures. C: Systemic infections affect the entire body, not specific to infections caused by medical procedures. Therefore, the term "iatrogenic infections" is the most appropriate choice in this context.
Question 9 of 9
On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.