Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier. This outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides and porins, which restrict the entry of antibiotics like penicillin. The outer membrane acts as an additional layer of protection, making it harder for penicillin to penetrate and reach its target, the peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the specific mechanism of resistance seen in gram-negative bacteria. Choice A focuses on transpeptidase enzyme quantity, which is not the primary reason for penicillin resistance. Choice B refers to β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space, which are actually enzymes that degrade penicillin and contribute to resistance, but this is not unique to gram-negative bacteria. Choice D mentions a thicker cell wall, which is a characteristic of gram-positive bacteria, not gram-negative bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative characteristics indicate Staphylococcus species. Specifically, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal and a frequent cause of wound infections. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it less likely in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes and Enterococcus faecalis are both Gram-positive cocci but are catalase-negative, making them less likely causative agents.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protein synthesis. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into proteins through a process called translation. This is a crucial step in gene expression, where amino acids are assembled into polypeptide chains. Choice B (DNA replication) is incorrect because ribosomes are not involved in DNA replication. Choice C (Flagella formation) is incorrect as ribosomes do not play a direct role in flagella formation. Choice D (Toxin production) is incorrect as ribosomes are not directly involved in producing toxins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs suggest Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative rules out Staphylococcus. 3. Beta-hemolytic indicates Streptococcus pyogenes due to its beta-hemolytic properties. Summary: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not typically in pairs.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nigrosin is used in negative staining, where the background is stained instead of the cells themselves. This technique helps highlight the morphology and structure of cells that may be damaged by traditional staining methods. Nigrosin is negatively charged and repels the negatively charged bacterial cells, resulting in a clear halo around the cells. This process is particularly useful for observing capsules and determining cell size and shape. The other options are incorrect because simple staining uses a single dye to color the entire cell, gram staining involves a series of dyes to differentiate between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, and acid-fast staining is used to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is known for producing pyocyanin, a green pigment. This bacterium is commonly associated with infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice A) produces golden-yellow pigments, not green. Escherichia coli (choice C) and Clostridium difficile (choice D) do not produce pyocyanin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the characteristic pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a fourfold increase in titer in the second serum sample indicates a significant rise in specific antibodies, which is crucial for diagnosing viral infections accurately. This increase is considered significant in serologic reactions as it shows a strong antibody response to the virus. A: A threshold increase may not be substantial enough to confirm a diagnostic antibody response. B: Dismissing the increase in titer would overlook important diagnostic information. C: A twofold increase may not be as indicative of a strong antibody response compared to a fourfold increase.