Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?

Questions 64

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which one of the following signs is indicative of possible shoulder dystocia during delivery?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal head retracts against the perineum. This sign indicates possible shoulder dystocia as it suggests the baby's shoulders are impacted and unable to pass through the birth canal. The retraction of the fetal head against the perineum is a classic sign of shoulder dystocia, which requires specific maneuvers to dislodge the shoulders and facilitate delivery. A: Failure of internal rotation of the head is not specific to shoulder dystocia. C: Gentle traction should not be applied in cases of shoulder dystocia as it can worsen the situation. D: The occiput restituting towards the left side is not a sign of shoulder dystocia, as it refers to the rotation of the fetal head during delivery.

Question 2 of 9

Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.

Question 3 of 9

Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor. 2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition. 3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor. 4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours. 5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor. Summary: Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.

Question 4 of 9

Vaginal delivery is possible in

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the fetus is in a position where the face is presenting first, allowing for delivery. In this presentation, the chin is usually tucked onto the chest, making it easier for the baby's head to pass through the birth canal. A: Brow presentation is incorrect because it indicates the baby's head is extended slightly, making it more difficult for vaginal delivery. C: Shoulder presentation is incorrect as it can lead to a shoulder dystocia, making vaginal delivery dangerous and difficult. D: Unstable lie is incorrect because it refers to the baby being in a transverse position, making vaginal delivery impossible without intervention.

Question 5 of 9

Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory insufficiency. Chronic traumatic diaphragmatic hernias can lead to gradual compromise of respiratory function due to herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity, causing compression of the lungs and reduced lung capacity. This results in symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and chest pain. Sepsis (B) is more commonly associated with acute traumatic diaphragmatic hernias. Bowel obstruction (C) is a possible complication but typically presents with acute symptoms like abdominal pain and distension. Anemia (D) is not a common presentation of diaphragmatic hernias.

Question 6 of 9

A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.

Question 7 of 9

Perception and reaction to labor pain is highly influenced by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Culture and level of education. Culture influences beliefs about pain and coping mechanisms. Education can affect understanding of pain and pain management techniques. Labor preparedness and fatigue (A) may impact pain perception but are not as influential. Age (C) alone does not determine pain perception. Number of deliveries and anxiety (D) can play a role but are not as significant as culture and education.

Question 8 of 9

Pubiotomy is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surgical procedure in which the cartilage of the pubic symphysis is divided. Pubiotomy involves cutting the pubic symphysis cartilage to widen the pelvic outlet during difficult childbirth. This procedure helps facilitate labor by increasing the pelvic diameter. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe pubiotomy. Choice A refers to accessing the lower uterine segment, choice C involves ligating pubic bones for cancer, and choice D pertains to perineal tissue dissection during labor, which are unrelated to pubiotomy.

Question 9 of 9

The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased MCV. Following splenectomy, there is a compensatory increase in red blood cell production, leading to an increase in Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) due to the release of larger, younger red blood cells into circulation. This is known as stress erythropoiesis. Summary: B: Increased Hgb - Hgb levels may not necessarily increase post-splenectomy as it depends on factors such as bleeding or hydration status. C: Increased platelets - Platelet count is not expected to increase immediately post-splenectomy. D: Increased albumin - Albumin levels are not directly influenced by splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.

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