Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Paracetamol. Paracetamol is a non-narcotic agent that mainly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) in the central nervous system (CNS). Paracetamol is known for its analgesic (pain-relieving) and antipyretic (fever-reducing) properties. It is considered a weak inhibitor of COX compared to other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Option B) Ketorolac is a potent NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2, and it is primarily used for its strong analgesic effects in the treatment of moderate to severe pain. Option C) Acetylsalicylic acid, commonly known as aspirin, inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. It is widely used for its anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet effects. Option D) Ibuprofen is another NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. It is commonly used for its anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action of different drugs on the cardiovascular system is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug selection and patient care. Knowing the specific actions of drugs like Paracetamol, Ketorolac, Acetylsalicylic acid, and Ibuprofen helps in tailoring treatment plans based on the desired therapeutic effects and potential side effects associated with each medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Meridil. Meridil is a CNS stimulant that is a piperidine derivative. Piperidine is a chemical structure that is present in the drug Meridil, making it the correct choice. Amphetamine (B) is not a piperidine derivative; it belongs to the phenethylamine class. Caffeine (C) is a xanthine derivative. Sydnophen (D) is not a piperidine derivative but a sympathomimetic amine. Therefore, based on the chemical structure and classification, Meridil is the only option that fits the criteria of being a piperidine derivative.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose. Step 2: Given intravenously, it acts rapidly to competitively inhibit the effects of benzodiazepines. Step 3: Flumazenil has a short half-life of about 1 hour, resulting in a rapid onset but short duration of action. Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct as it accurately describes the pharmacokinetics of flumazenil. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because flumazenil does not have an intermediate onset and duration of action of about 2 hours, an effect lasting 3-5 hours, or a duration of action longer than 6 hours.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Thiopental, etomidate, and propofol are commonly used intravenous agents for induction of anesthesia. They provide a faster onset and rate of recovery compared to inhaled anesthetics. Additionally, these agents do not provide conscious sedation but rather induce a state of unconsciousness for surgical procedures. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it encompasses all the unique characteristics of intravenous anesthetics compared to inhaled anesthetics.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ethyl alcohol is a substance known to stimulate appetite, not decrease it. 2. Alcohol consumption often leads to increased hunger and overeating. 3. Therefore, the correct answer is B: FALSE. Summary: A: Incorrect - Ethyl alcohol does not decrease appetite. C: Incorrect - Ethyl alcohol does not decrease appetite for all individuals. D: Incorrect - Ethyl alcohol does have an impact on appetite.