Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

openstax microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which one of the following microbiological diagnostic methods is the most suitable for detection of genitourinary chlamydiosis

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: PCR. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the most suitable method for detecting genitourinary chlamydiosis due to its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting the genetic material of Chlamydia trachomatis. PCR can detect even low levels of the pathogen, providing accurate results. A: Cultural diagnostic is not as sensitive as PCR and may take longer to produce results. B: ELISA detects antibodies, which may not be present in early stages of infection, leading to false-negative results. C: CFT (Complement Fixation Test) is an older method with lower sensitivity compared to PCR for detecting chlamydiosis.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with diarrhea had stool microscopy revealing flagellated protozoa with two nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan with two nuclei, known as the "falling leaf" appearance. It causes diarrhea in humans through ingestion of contaminated water or food. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea and colitis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan causing vaginal discharge but is not found in stool. Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan causing diarrhea but does not have flagellated forms.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with an abscess had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Question 4 of 5

Tularemia is caused by

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, a highly infectious bacterium. 2. Francisella tularensis is the only pathogen specifically known to cause tularemia. 3. The other choices (Bordetella pertussis, Brucella suis, Legionella sp.) are not associated with tularemia. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A - Francisella tularensis.

Question 5 of 5

Which bacteria is a common cause of bacterial meningitis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are all common causes of bacterial meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is often associated with outbreaks in community settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults. Haemophilus influenzae used to be a common cause in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Therefore, since all three bacteria are known to cause bacterial meningitis, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacteria individually can cause bacterial meningitis, making "All of the above" the correct comprehensive answer.

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