ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which one of the following is characteristic of both phenytoin and carbamazepine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin and carbamazepine are antiepileptic drugs with a shared mechanism: they stabilize neuronal membranes by preventing sodium influx through fast sodium channels, reducing excitability and controlling seizures, particularly in partial and tonic-clonic types. Both induce hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, accelerating metabolism of other drugs, not inhibiting it. Phenytoin exhibits zero-order elimination at high doses due to enzyme saturation, while carbamazepine follows first-order kinetics, so this isn't a shared trait. They reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives by inducing their metabolism, not enhancing them. Safety in pregnancy is questionable, with both linked to teratogenicity (e.g., fetal hydantoin syndrome). The sodium channel blockade is the fundamental property uniting their therapeutic effects, making it the key characteristic they share, critical to their role in epilepsy management.
Question 2 of 5
The patient has been prescribed dextromethorphan (Delsym). What medication information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dextromethorphan suppresses cough but with alcohol or overdose can cause CNS effects like slurred speech . Smoking isn't directly relevant. It acts within 15-30 minutes, not an hour . Choice D instructs on recognizing toxicity, ensuring safety and prompt reporting.
Question 3 of 5
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 4 of 5
What serious adverse reaction can occur with the loop diuretic Furosemide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening adverse reaction associated with the use of Furosemide, a loop diuretic. It is characterized by a severe skin reaction that can cause rashes, blisters, and mucous membrane involvement. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is considered a medical emergency and requires immediate discontinuation of the offending medication. Monitoring and management should be promptly initiated to prevent serious complications. Other side effects of Furosemide include electrolyte imbalances, ototoxicity, and dehydration, but Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a particularly serious adverse reaction that requires immediate attention.
Question 5 of 5
Haloperidol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.