Which one of the following is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism for the development of an infectious disease?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which one of the following is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism for the development of an infectious disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Overcrowding. Overcrowding can facilitate the spread of infectious diseases due to increased contact between individuals, making it easier for pathogens to transmit from one person to another. This is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism as it directly impacts the likelihood of disease transmission. Environmental pollution (B) may impact overall health but is not a direct risk factor for infectious diseases. Physical fatigue (C) weakens the immune system but is not a direct facilitator of disease transmission. Ionizing radiation (D) can cause cellular damage but is not a typical risk factor for infectious diseases.

Question 2 of 9

The main factor in pathogenicity of diphtheria is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the main factor in the pathogenicity of diphtheria is the exotoxin produced by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis in host cells, leading to tissue damage and the characteristic symptoms of diphtheria. A: The metachromatic bodies of Ernst-Babes are not the main factor in diphtheria pathogenicity. B: While endotoxins can contribute to the pathogenicity of some bacteria, in diphtheria, the main factor is the exotoxin. D: This is incorrect as the main factor in diphtheria pathogenicity is the exotoxin.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with pneumonia had sputum stained with Gram's method, revealing purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium appears as purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends on Gram staining. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. It is encapsulated and has a lancet-shaped appearance, which is characteristic of the pointed ends seen in the staining. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears as clusters of gram-positive cocci, not diplococci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a gram-negative rod, not a diplococci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a gram-negative diplococci but typically lacks the pointed ends seen in the staining of S. pneumoniae.

Question 4 of 9

All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: leg swelling. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Symptoms typically include fever, chills, weight loss, and muscle aches due to the body's immune response to the infection. Leg swelling is not a common symptom of endocarditis. It may occur in conditions like heart failure but is not directly associated with endocarditis. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fever and chills, weight loss, and muscle aches are commonly seen in endocarditis due to the systemic inflammatory response to the infection.

Question 5 of 9

The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.

Question 6 of 9

A wound culture grew Gram-positive rods with central spores. The bacteria were catalase-positive and aerobic. Identify the microorganism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods with central spores, catalase-positive, and aerobic growth characteristics are indicative of Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is known for its central spores and ability to grow aerobically. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Clostridium tetani is a Gram-positive rod with terminal spores and is anaerobic. C: Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci and catalase-negative. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod and catalase-positive, but is not associated with central spores.

Question 7 of 9

The complex invaginations of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane are called:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mesosomes. Mesosomes are infoldings of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane that play a role in cell division and respiration. This structure is not found in eukaryotic cells. Cristae (A) are infoldings of the mitochondrial inner membrane in eukaryotic cells. Granum (B) refers to stacks of thylakoid membranes in chloroplasts. Flagella (C) are whip-like structures used for movement and are not related to cytoplasmic membrane invaginations. Therefore, the correct answer is D as mesosomes are unique to prokaryotic cells and are involved in various cellular processes.

Question 8 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. Step 1: Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. Step 2: Catalase-positive and coagulase-negative narrows it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as it is catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Question 9 of 9

The one-way transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell by direct cell to cell contact is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conjugation. Conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell through direct cell-to-cell contact, typically mediated by a conjugative plasmid. During conjugation, a conjugative pilus forms a bridge between the donor and recipient cells, allowing the transfer of genetic material. A: Replication is the process of copying DNA to produce two identical DNA molecules. It does not involve the transfer of genetic material between cells. C: Transformation is the uptake and incorporation of foreign DNA from the environment by a bacterial cell. It does not require direct cell-to-cell contact. D: Transduction is the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage vector. It does not involve direct cell-to-cell contact between the donor and recipient cells.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days