Which one of the following is a characteristic of fetal post-maturity syndrome?

Questions 64

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which one of the following is a characteristic of fetal post-maturity syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wrinkled, peeling skin. Post-maturity syndrome occurs when a pregnancy extends beyond 42 weeks, causing the baby to lose the protective layer of vernix caseosa, leading to dry, peeling skin. Closed eyes and being unusually alert (A) are not specific to post-maturity syndrome. Long, frail fingernails (B) are not a typical characteristic of post-maturity. Excess vernix caseosa (D) is actually a characteristic of a premature baby, not a post-mature one.

Question 2 of 9

A condition of trial of scar is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Not more than two previous caesarean section scars. This is because a trial of scar refers to a trial of labor in a woman who has had previous cesarean sections. The guideline typically recommends that a trial of scar should be considered in women with no more than two previous cesarean section scars to reduce the risk of uterine rupture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the estimated fetal weight, availability of a level one hospital, and pelvis size are not specific criteria used to determine eligibility for a trial of scar.

Question 3 of 9

Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.

Question 4 of 9

In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Portal hypertension. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated primarily for portal hypertension due to extramedullary hematopoiesjson in the spleen, leading to increased blood flow and pressure in the portal vein. This can alleviate symptoms such as ascites and variceal bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as major hemolysis, massive splenomegaly, and sustained leukocyte elevation are not primary indications for splenectomy in myelodysplastic syndromes.

Question 5 of 9

A medical/obstetric predisposing factor to puerperal sepsis includes

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Emergency cesarean section. Emergency cesarean sections can increase the risk of puerperal sepsis due to the urgency of the procedure, which may lead to inadequate sterilization or contamination. Other choices are less directly associated with puerperal sepsis: A may increase the risk of infection, but not specifically puerperal sepsis. C relates to general hygiene practices and D focuses on delays in seeking care, which may affect treatment outcomes but are not direct predisposing factors to puerperal sepsis.

Question 6 of 9

S. R. is a 51-year-old male patient who is being evaluated for fatigue. Over the last few months he has noticed a marked decrease in activity tolerance. Physical examination reveals a variety of ecchymoses of unknown origin. The CBC is significant for a Hgb of 10.1 gdL, an MCV of 72 fL and a platelet count of 65,000L the remainder of the CBC is normal. Coagulation studies are normal, but bleeding time is prolonged. The AGACNP recognizes that initial management of this patient will include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Splenectomy. In this case, the patient presents with signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) with low platelet count and bleeding time prolongation. Splenectomy is the definitive treatment for ITP as the spleen is the site of platelet destruction. Avoiding elective surgery and medications (choice A) may be necessary to prevent bleeding complications but do not address the underlying issue. Prednisone (choice B) is used for acute treatment but not for long-term management. Monoclonal antibody therapy (choice C) is an option for refractory cases but not first-line therapy.

Question 7 of 9

A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast cancer. The patient's breast cancer is the reason she is ineligible to donate organs. Breast cancer is a contraindication for organ donation due to the risk of cancer transmission to the recipient. Traumatic brain injury (choice B) and renal failure (choice A) are not absolute contraindications to organ donation. Gram-negative infection (choice C) may temporarily disqualify the patient but can be treated, unlike breast cancer. In summary, breast cancer poses the highest risk of organ recipient harm compared to the other medical conditions listed.

Question 8 of 9

Clinical features of facial palsy are

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reduced facial movement is a key clinical feature of facial palsy. This can lead to difficulty in making facial expressions, closing the eye on the affected side, and drooping of the mouth. Irritability may also occur due to discomfort or difficulty in communication. Choice A is incorrect because inability to feed and excessive cry are not typical features of facial palsy. Choice C is incorrect as excessively dry eyeball and feeding difficulties are not commonly associated with facial palsy. Choice D is incorrect as eyes being permanently open and no facial movement are not characteristic of facial palsy.

Question 9 of 9

The major causative organism of urinary tract infection during puerperium is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. During puerperium, the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection is E. coli. This is because E. coli is a normal flora in the gastrointestinal tract and can ascend to the urinary tract due to factors like hormonal changes, reduced bladder tone, and trauma during delivery. Staphylococcus pyogenes (Choice A), Anaerobic streptococci (Choice B), and Clostridium welchii (Choice C) are not typically associated with urinary tract infections during puerperium. Staphylococcus pyogenes is more commonly known for causing skin infections, Anaerobic streptococci are not commonly implicated in urinary tract infections, and Clostridium welchii is associated with gas gangrene, not urinary tract infections.

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