ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which one of the following clinical features denotes cardiac disease grade III?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marked limitation of physical activity. In cardiac disease grading, grade III signifies marked limitation of physical activity. This indicates that the patient experiences symptoms with less than ordinary physical activity, such as shortness of breath or chest pain. This grade reflects significant impairment in daily activities due to cardiac issues. A: Patient is comfortable even at rest - This describes grade I, where patients are comfortable at rest. B: Patient is asymptomatic initially - This describes pre-symptomatic stages before any limitations in physical activity. D: Absolute limitation of physical activity - This is more severe and indicative of grade IV, where any physical activity causes discomfort or symptoms.
Question 2 of 9
Perception and reaction to labor pain is highly influenced by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because culture and level of education can significantly impact how women perceive and react to labor pain. Culture shapes beliefs, norms, and attitudes towards pain, influencing coping mechanisms. Education can enhance understanding of pain management techniques. Option A lacks specificity on how preparedness and fatigue affect perception. Option B oversimplifies by only considering culture and age. Option D overlooks the influence of education and focuses solely on anxiety and number of deliveries.
Question 3 of 9
Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.
Question 4 of 9
Perception and reaction to labor pain is highly influenced by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Culture and level of education. Culture influences beliefs about pain and coping mechanisms. Education can affect understanding of pain and pain management techniques. Labor preparedness and fatigue (A) may impact pain perception but are not as influential. Age (C) alone does not determine pain perception. Number of deliveries and anxiety (D) can play a role but are not as significant as culture and education.
Question 5 of 9
Signs of obstructed labor per vaginally include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of obstructed labor include a dry vagina due to prolonged pressure, oedema of the cervix due to prolonged contractions, and caput succedaneum which is swelling of the baby's scalp from prolonged pressure. Choice B is incorrect because plenty of amniotic fluid is not a sign of obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Meconium-stained liquor can be a sign of fetal distress, but not specifically obstructed labor. Choice C is incorrect because meconium-stained liquor is a sign of fetal distress, not necessarily obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Diluted urine is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because while caput succedaneum is a sign of obstructed labor, oedema of the cervix is more indicative of obstructed labor than plenty of amni
Question 6 of 9
In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Portal hypertension. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated primarily for portal hypertension due to extramedullary hematopoiesjson in the spleen, leading to increased blood flow and pressure in the portal vein. This can alleviate symptoms such as ascites and variceal bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as major hemolysis, massive splenomegaly, and sustained leukocyte elevation are not primary indications for splenectomy in myelodysplastic syndromes.
Question 7 of 9
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.
Question 8 of 9
A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: They are always of the same sex. This is because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos. As a result, they share the same genetic material and are always of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not determined by genetics and can vary even between identical twins. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins share the same blood type since they have the same genetic makeup. Choice D is incorrect as superfetation, the occurrence of multiple pregnancies in the same uterus but from different ovulations, is extremely rare and not a common finding in monozygotic twins.
Question 9 of 9
Bishop’s score is based on
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Bishop's score assesses the readiness of the cervix for labor by evaluating descent (station of the fetal head), presentation (fetal position), and cervical dilatation, which are key indicators of cervical ripening and effacement. Descent shows the progress of the fetus through the birth canal, presentation indicates the fetal position for delivery, and cervical dilatation reflects the opening of the cervix for labor. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass all the essential components of Bishop's score, which focuses on descent, presentation, and cervical dilatation.