ATI RN
Psychobiologic Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which one of the following BEST describes the FIRST step that a physical therapist should take when integrating best evidence into clinical practice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct: 1. Identifying a clinically relevant question is crucial for guiding the integration of evidence into practice. 2. This step ensures that the evidence sought aligns with the specific needs and concerns of the patient. 3. By focusing on the patient's individual situation, the therapist can tailor the evidence-based interventions effectively. 4. It sets the foundation for a patient-centered approach to care, enhancing clinical decision-making. 5. Overall, starting with a clinically relevant question is the essential first step in evidence-based practice. Summary: A: Identifying current best evidence is premature without understanding the patient's specific needs. B: Critically appraising evidence comes after identifying the question to ensure relevance. C: Discussing evidence with the patient is important but should follow after identifying the relevant question.
Question 2 of 5
A 67-year-old female smoker with a family history of high blood pressure and heart disease presents with acute onset neck pain, headache, and a blood pressure of 175/100 mm Hg. What should the physical therapist do FIRST?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the patient for assessment by a physician. Given the patient's age, smoking history, family history, and elevated blood pressure, there is a high likelihood of cardiovascular issues. As a physical therapist, it is crucial to prioritize patient safety and rule out any serious medical conditions before proceeding with any interventions. Referring the patient for immediate medical assessment allows for proper diagnosis and management of potential cardiovascular emergencies. This is the first and most important step to ensure the patient's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Assuming it is a 'white coat' effect overlooks the serious symptoms and risks associated with the patient's presentation. C: Continuing the examination with modifications may delay necessary medical intervention and put the patient at risk. D: Modifying the examination and avoiding manual therapy may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms and delay appropriate medical care.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Orders from the physician include 100 mg chlorpromazine IM STAT and then 50 mg PO bid; 2 mg benztropine PO bid prn. Why is chlorpromazine ordered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - To decrease psychotic symptoms Rationale: 1. Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic used to manage psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia. 2. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate hallucinations and delusions. 3. The IM STAT dose provides rapid relief, followed by the oral dose for maintenance. 4. Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, not chlorpromazine. 5. Chlorpromazine does not prevent neuroleptic malignant syndrome or induce sleep. Summary: A: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine does not primarily reduce extrapyramidal symptoms. B: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine does not prevent neuroleptic malignant syndrome. D: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine is not primarily used to induce sleep.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is interviewing a client on the psychiatric unit. The client tilts his head to the side, stops talking in midsentence, and listens intently. The nurse recognizes from these signs that the client is likely experiencing:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory hallucinations. When a client tilts their head to the side, stops talking, and listens intently, it suggests that they are hearing something that others cannot, indicating auditory hallucinations. This behavior aligns with the sensory experience of hearing voices. Somatic delusions (A) involve false beliefs about one's body, not auditory experiences. Catatonic stupor (B) is characterized by immobility and unresponsiveness, not specific behavioral cues like tilting the head. Pseudoparkinsonism (D) refers to drug-induced symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease, not related to the client's behavior during the interview.
Question 5 of 5
In the harmful dysfunction definition of psychological disorders, dysfunction involves
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.