ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which one IS NOT true for the urinary tract infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Understand haematogenic spread means bacteria traveling through blood. Step 2: Urinary tract infections typically occur due to bacteria entering through urethra, not via blood. Step 3: Choice A states bacterial UTIs are usually after haematogenic spread, which is incorrect. Step 4: Therefore, Choice A is NOT true for UTIs. Summary: B, C, and D are incorrect as they align with typical characteristics of UTIs.
Question 2 of 9
What is the role of bacterial plasmids?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Carry genes for antibiotic resistance. Bacterial plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can be transferred between bacteria, carrying genes such as antibiotic resistance. This allows bacteria to survive in the presence of antibiotics. Plasmids do not directly play a role in protein synthesis (choice A) or DNA replication (choice B). Plasmids are not responsible for motility (choice D) as that function is usually carried out by flagella or other cellular structures.
Question 3 of 9
Numerous antibodies can be prepared against one antigen, but each binds to unique epitope. How is this antibodies diversity generated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antibody diversity is generated by rearrangements of DNA encoding variable regions of heavy and light chains (choice A) and by the combination of different heavy and light chains that form the antigen binding site (choice B). Step 1: DNA rearrangements create different variable regions in heavy and light chains. Step 2: Combination of different heavy and light chains leads to unique antigen binding sites. Step 3: This diversity allows antibodies to bind to different epitopes on the same antigen. Step 4: Choice C is incorrect as antibodies do not physically change shape to bind different epitopes.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum stained with Gram's method, revealing purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium appears as purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends on Gram staining. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. It is encapsulated and has a lancet-shaped appearance, which is characteristic of the pointed ends seen in the staining. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears as clusters of gram-positive cocci, not diplococci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a gram-negative rod, not a diplococci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a gram-negative diplococci but typically lacks the pointed ends seen in the staining of S. pneumoniae.
Question 5 of 9
Which one belongs to genus Orthopoxvirus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of these. Orthopoxvirus genus includes Vaccinia, Smallpox, and Cowpox viruses. They share similar characteristics such as brick-shaped virions and double-stranded DNA genomes. Vaccinia virus is used in smallpox vaccine, Smallpox virus caused the eradicated disease, and Cowpox virus can infect both animals and humans. Therefore, all three viruses belong to the Orthopoxvirus genus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent a different virus from the genus Orthopoxvirus.
Question 6 of 9
A 65 y.o. woman complains of complicated mouth opening following foot trauma 10 days ago. Next day she ate with difficulties, there were muscles tension of back, the back of the head and abdomen. On the third day there was tension of all muscle groups, generalized convulsions every 10-15 min. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Tetanus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. Tetanus is characterized by muscle stiffness, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), muscle spasms, and convulsions. The progression of symptoms from muscle tension to generalized convulsions every 10-15 min is classic for tetanus. Tetania (Choice B) is similar but typically presents with more subtle muscle contractions rather than convulsions. Meningoencephalitis (Choice C) presents with fever, headache, and altered mental status, not the muscle symptoms described. Hemorrhagic stroke (Choice D) presents with sudden onset neurological deficits like weakness or sensory changes, not the muscle symptoms described.
Question 7 of 9
Which one of the following is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism for the development of an infectious disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Overcrowding. Overcrowding can facilitate the spread of infectious diseases due to increased contact between individuals, making it easier for pathogens to transmit from one person to another. This is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism as it directly impacts the likelihood of disease transmission. Environmental pollution (B) may impact overall health but is not a direct risk factor for infectious diseases. Physical fatigue (C) weakens the immune system but is not a direct facilitator of disease transmission. Ionizing radiation (D) can cause cellular damage but is not a typical risk factor for infectious diseases.
Question 8 of 9
A wound culture grew Gram-positive rods with central spores. The bacteria were catalase-positive and aerobic. Identify the microorganism.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods with central spores, catalase-positive, and aerobic growth characteristics are indicative of Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is known for its central spores and ability to grow aerobically. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Clostridium tetani is a Gram-positive rod with terminal spores and is anaerobic. C: Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci and catalase-negative. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod and catalase-positive, but is not associated with central spores.
Question 9 of 9
The normal flora present in the healthy male reproductive system is best characterized as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The male reproductive system is considered sterile as it does not have a natural microbiota. 2. Any presence of microorganisms in this system could indicate an infection or disease. 3. Therefore, choice C, sterile with no normal flora, is the best characterization. Summary: A: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive rods. B: Incorrect - Acid-fast rods are not part of the normal flora in the male reproductive system. D: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive spore formers.