Which one is NOT included in the non-specific immune response

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Memory cells are not part of the non-specific immune response because they are a component of the specific immune response. Non-specific immune responses are immediate and target a broad range of pathogens, whereas memory cells are formed after exposure to a specific pathogen to provide a quicker and stronger response upon subsequent exposure. Lysozyme (A), Interferon (C), and Phagocytosis (D) are all part of the non-specific immune response. Lysozyme is an enzyme that destroys bacterial cell walls, interferon helps to inhibit viral replication, and phagocytosis involves the engulfing and destruction of pathogens by phagocytes. These responses are not specific to particular pathogens and are the body's first line of defense.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Gram staining after culture on Loeffler's medium or tellurite-containing medium will show the characteristic Chinese letter arrangement of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This arrangement consists of metachromatic granules that stain more deeply than the rest of the cell. This specific staining pattern is a key diagnostic feature of C. diphtheriae in microbiological diagnosis of diphtheria. Choice A is incorrect because simply identifying the isolate as C. diphtheriae is not sufficient for diagnosis. Choice B is incorrect as C. diphtheriae can be stained via Gram staining despite its small cell size. Choice D is incorrect as option C is indeed correct for microbiological diagnosis of diphtheria.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rabbit fever, or tularemia, is caused by Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is known to infect a wide range of animals, including rabbits. The other choices, Bartonella henselae (causes cat scratch fever), Spirillum minus (causes rat bite fever), and Yersinia pestis (causes plague) are not associated with rabbit fever. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific pathogen responsible for causing tularemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because utilizing all three methods—immunofluorescence, viral neutralization reaction, and electron microscopy—provides a comprehensive and rapid diagnosis of various viral infections. Immunofluorescence detects viral antigens directly, viral neutralization reaction demonstrates the presence of specific antibodies, and electron microscopy visualizes viral particles. This combination ensures accurate and quick identification of different viruses. Choices A, B, and C alone may not cover all aspects of viral diagnosis, making them less effective compared to the comprehensive approach of using all three methods.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection commonly found in vaginal discharges. In this case, the presence of flagellates in the vaginal discharge aligns with the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis. Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, transmitted by sandflies. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness through the tsetse fly bite. Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the correlation between the flagellates found in the vaginal discharge and the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella. The presence of mercury-drop like colonies on Bordet-Gengou agar indicates Bordetella pertussis. The small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns are characteristic of Bordetella species. Catarrhal symptoms are typical of pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis. Summary of other choices: B: Corynebacteria do not typically exhibit mercury-drop like colonies or small ovoid shapes. C: Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacilli and do not grow on Bordet-Gengou agar. D: Meningococcus is a gram-negative diplococcus and does not match the description provided.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ebola virus. The patient's symptoms align with Ebola virus infection, including fever, severe hemorrhagic syndrome, and CNS involvement. Ebola virus is known to cause hemorrhagic fevers with high mortality rates. A: SARS CoV causes Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome, which typically presents with respiratory symptoms, not hemorrhagic fever. B: Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus usually causes a mild illness with flu-like symptoms, not severe hemorrhagic syndrome. D: ECHO 9 virus is associated with aseptic meningitis, not hemorrhagic fever.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: OSHA. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for setting and enforcing safety standards in the workplace, including bloodborne pathogen training requirements. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates training for certain at-risk professions to prevent exposure to bloodborne diseases. The CDC (Choice B) focuses on disease prevention and control, not regulatory enforcement. NIA (Choice C) is the National Institute on Aging and not relevant to bloodborne training. WHO (Choice D) is the World Health Organization, which sets global health standards but does not regulate workplace safety in the same capacity as OSHA.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: nosocomial infections. Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in healthcare settings. This term specifically refers to infections that occur during the course of receiving medical treatment. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Incidental infections do not necessarily occur in healthcare settings. B: Accidental infections is not a commonly used term in healthcare for infections acquired in healthcare settings. D: Secondary infections refer to infections that occur as a result of a primary infection, not specifically related to healthcare settings.