Which of these is an early symptom of rabies

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all of the symptoms mentioned (short period of depression, nausea, restlessness) can be early signs of rabies. Rabies typically presents with a variety of non-specific symptoms in the early stages, including behavioral changes such as depression and restlessness, as well as gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea. Therefore, it is important to consider the combination of these symptoms collectively rather than individually when suspecting rabies. Choices A, B, and C alone may not definitively indicate rabies, but when seen together, they should raise suspicion and prompt further evaluation and testing for rabies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani is responsible for causing tetanus due to its production of tetanospasmin toxin. This neurotoxin leads to muscle stiffness and spasms characteristic of tetanus. Clostridium perfringens is associated with gas gangrene, not tetanus. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat and skin infections, not tetanus. Escherichia coli is a common gut bacteria and is not responsible for tetanus. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer for causing tetanus.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: autoclaving. Autoclaving is a process that uses high pressure and steam to achieve temperatures above the boiling point of water, typically around 121-134°C. This high heat and pressure are effective in destroying spore forms of microorganisms, which are highly resistant structures that can withstand boiling temperatures. Autoclaving ensures the complete destruction of spores, making it an effective method for sterilization. Rationale: A: Pasteurization uses lower heat compared to autoclaving and is not sufficient to destroy spore forms. C: Freezing does not effectively destroy spore forms, as most microorganisms can survive freezing temperatures. D: Boiling, while effective for many microorganisms, may not be sufficient to destroy spore forms due to their high resistance, unlike autoclaving.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bacterial enzymes like amylase and protease catalyze biochemical reactions like digestion. Amylase breaks down carbohydrates, while protease breaks down proteins. This process is essential for bacterial metabolism and nutrient acquisition. Choice A (Break down toxins) is incorrect because bacterial enzymes are primarily involved in nutrient breakdown, not toxin degradation. Choice B (Facilitate movement) is incorrect as enzymes are not directly involved in bacterial movement. Choice D (Promote spore formation) is incorrect because enzymes like amylase and protease are not directly involved in spore formation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Burri-Gins staining technique is used to identify the presence of capsules around bacteria. Capsules are protective structures that some bacteria produce to evade the immune system. This technique stains the capsule, making it visible under a microscope. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Capsule formation. Incorrect: B: Spore formation - Spores are not typically identified using the Burri-Gins staining technique. C: Acid resistance - This property is not specifically identified by Burri-Gins staining. D: Alkali resistance - This property is not specifically identified by Burri-Gins staining.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Staphylococcus saprophyticus (choice B). This bacterium is a common cause of urinary tract infections in young women. It typically grows on blood agar without hemolysis and appears as Gram-positive cocci under the microscope. Proteus mirabilis (choice A) is known for urease production, causing alkaline urine. Staphylococcus aureus (choice C) is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, not urinary tract infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (choice D) is an opportunistic pathogen often seen in nosocomial infections, not typically associated with urinary tract infections in healthy individuals.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: HIV. HIV is transmitted through direct contact with certain body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This direct contact route of transmission makes it different from the other choices. Salmonellosis is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water (not direct contact). Tularemia is usually transmitted through insect bites or contact with infected animals. Rubella is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. Therefore, HIV is the only option with a contact route of transmission.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan that causes trichomoniasis. The pear-shaped flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane described in the question match the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. It is typically found in vaginal discharge of infected individuals. Giardia lamblia (B) is a different protozoan that causes giardiasis and has a distinct morphology of a teardrop shape with flagella. Trypanosoma brucei (C) causes African sleeping sickness and Leishmania donovani (D) causes visceral leishmaniasis, both of which have different morphologies and clinical presentations compared to Trichomonas vaginalis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial ribosomes synthesize proteins. Ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis by translating mRNA into amino acids. They are essential for the production of proteins needed for cell function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ribosomes do not synthesize DNA, degrade toxic substances, or assist in cell division. DNA synthesis is carried out by DNA polymerase, degradation of toxic substances is typically done by enzymes, and cell division is primarily regulated by the cell cycle machinery.