Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: septicemia. Septicemia specifically refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, leading to a systemic inflammatory response. Bacteremia (choice A) is simply the presence of bacteria in the blood without the systemic inflammatory response. Shock (choice C) is a state of circulatory collapse, often seen in severe septicemia. Bloodborne infection (choice D) is a general term for infections transmitted through the blood but does not specifically refer to the condition of bacterial multiplication causing toxicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Exotoxins are proteins produced inside the microbe cell and then released outside the cell to exert their toxic effects on neighboring cells or tissues. This is why choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because exotoxins are not meant to act within the same cell they are produced in. Choice D is incorrect because exotoxins are usually released without causing cell lysis; they are secreted by the microbe actively rather than being leaked out due to cell damage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (2). During glycolysis, one glucose molecule is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate. In this process, a net gain of 2 ATP molecules is produced through substrate-level phosphorylation. Specifically, ATP is generated during the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and during the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. The other choices are incorrect because the net gain of ATP molecules in glycolysis is not 1, 3, or 4; it is 2 based on the specific enzymatic reactions involved in the pathway.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS). In the Gram staining technique, these bacteria appear pink/red due to the thin peptidoglycan layer, which allows the crystal violet stain to be washed out, revealing the safranin counterstain. Gram-positive bacteria (choice A) have a thick peptidoglycan layer but lack an outer membrane with LPS. Choice C is incorrect since only Gram-negative bacteria possess LPS in their outer membrane. Choice D is incorrect as all bacteria can be classified as either Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on their cell wall structure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxidation. Phase I reactions in biotransformation involve introducing or unmasking functional groups through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis. Oxidation reactions typically involve the addition of an oxygen atom or removal of hydrogen atoms, making them common phase I reactions. In this process, enzymes like cytochrome P450 play a crucial role in catalyzing the oxidation reactions. Conjugation (B), acetylation (C), and glucuronidation (D) are all examples of phase II reactions, which involve the conjugation of the drug or metabolite with endogenous compounds to increase water solubility for excretion. These reactions typically follow phase I reactions and are not classified as phase I reactions in biotransformation.