Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: cell wall. Lysozyme is an enzyme that targets the cell wall of bacteria by breaking down the peptidoglycan layer, leading to bacterial cell lysis. This action disrupts the structural integrity of the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lysozyme does not target the cytoplasm, nucleus, or capsule of bacteria. The primary function of lysozyme is to act on the cell wall, making option B the correct answer in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary function of bacterial capsules is to aid in adhesion and protect against phagocytosis. Capsules help bacteria adhere to surfaces and evade immune system detection by preventing phagocytosis. This is important for bacterial survival and colonization in host organisms. Choice A, protein synthesis, is incorrect as capsules do not directly participate in this process. Choice C, facilitate motility, is incorrect as capsules are not involved in bacterial movement. Choice D, synthesize DNA, is incorrect as capsules do not have a role in DNA synthesis. Thus, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. 1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane. 3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts. 4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because filoviruses, such as Ebola virus, require investigation in specifically equipped laboratories with high biological protection due to their high pathogenicity and risk of transmission. This is essential for ensuring the safety of researchers and preventing outbreaks. A: This is incorrect as filoviruses are not the most common cause of gastroenteritis; they primarily cause severe hemorrhagic fevers. C: Filoviruses are not widespread; they are typically confined to specific regions during outbreaks. D: Mass immunization is not used for filoviruses as there is no established vaccine for general prophylaxis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite known to cause toxoplasmosis. It belongs to the group of eukaryotic organisms called protozoans because it is a single-celled organism with complex cellular structures. Protozoans are characterized by their ability to move and perform essential functions independently. Algae (choice A) are photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms, fungi (choice B) are non-photosynthetic eukaryotes that include molds and yeasts, and helminths (choice D) are multicellular parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct answer is C because Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ allows direct visualization of bacteria causing the infection. 2. Microscopic examination of urine for organisms can help identify any bacteria present in the urinary tract. 3. Both methods are specific for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as biopsy is invasive and not typically used for diagnosing bacterial infections. - Choice C is incorrect as fecal samples and urine protein tests are not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. - Choice D is incorrect as antibody agglutination and coagulation tests are not primary methods for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.