ATI RN
FHEA Drugs That Affect the Cardiovascular System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the oral calcium preparations is often the preparation of choice:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Calcium carbonate. It is often the preparation of choice due to its high calcium content (40%). This means that a smaller dose can provide the required amount of elemental calcium compared to other options. Additionally, calcium carbonate is well-absorbed in an acidic environment, making it suitable for individuals with normal gastric acid production. Incorrect choices: B: Calcium lactate has a lower calcium content (13%) compared to calcium carbonate, requiring a higher dose to achieve the same calcium intake. C: Calcium phosphate has a lower calcium content (25%) compared to calcium carbonate, making it less efficient in providing elemental calcium. D: Calcium citrate has a lower calcium content (17%) compared to calcium carbonate and is better absorbed in individuals with low gastric acid production. However, in general, calcium carbonate is preferred for its higher calcium content and cost-effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amphotericin B. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for systemic and deep mycotic infections due to its broad spectrum and effectiveness. It works by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to cell membrane disruption. Co-trimoxazole (A) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Griseofulvin (B) is used for superficial fungal infections like ringworm. Nitrofungin (D) is an antifungal medication used for topical treatment. Therefore, Amphotericin B is the most appropriate choice for systemic and deep mycotic infections.
Question 3 of 5
Tick the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for trichomoniasis due to its efficacy against the parasite. 2. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. 3. Suramin is used for African sleeping sickness, not trichomoniasis. 4. Pyrimethamine is used for malaria, not trichomoniasis. 5. Tetracycline is used for bacterial infections, not trichomoniasis. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct choice for trichomoniasis treatment due to its specific mechanism of action against the parasite. Suramin, pyrimethamine, and tetracycline are used for different infections and are not effective for trichomoniasis.
Question 4 of 5
Tick the unwanted effects of indinavir:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used to treat HIV. 2. Nephrolithiasis is a known side effect due to indinavir crystal formation in kidneys. 3. Nausea is a common gastrointestinal side effect. 4. Hepatotoxicity is a serious unwanted effect due to liver damage. 5. Hypotension, vomiting, dizziness (Option A) are not associated with indinavir. 6. Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, hyperuricemia (Option C) are not typical side effects of indinavir. 7. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea (Option D) are not specific to indinavir. Summary: - Option B is correct as nephrolithiasis and hepatotoxicity are known side effects of indinavir. - Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include side effects not typically associated with indinavir.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following would be the most plausible explanation of the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amiodarone-induced increase in digoxin plasma levels. Amiodarone inhibits digoxin clearance, leading to increased digoxin levels, which can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and arrhythmias. The other choices are less likely as captopril is not typically associated with hyperkalemia, amiodarone does not commonly affect atrioventricular conduction, and furosemide-induced diuresis would not explain the symptoms mentioned.