Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.

Question 2 of 9

A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following statements about the outer layer of the eye is true?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are indeed stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of touch in the face and controls the muscles involved in chewing. The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, when the outer layer of the eye is touched or stimulated, these nerves are activated to convey the sensation to the brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: The outer layer of the eye is not particularly sensitive to touch compared to other areas like the cornea or conjunctiva. B: The outer layer of the eye is not darkly pigmented; the pigmented layer is actually the uvea inside the eye. D: The visual receptive layer of the eye, known as the retina, is located deeper within the eye, not

Question 4 of 9

The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate explanation for the frequent ear infections in the 2-year-old. The eustachian tube in children is indeed shorter and wider compared to adults, making it easier for infections to develop. This anatomical difference predisposes young children to ear infections. Choice A is incorrect because it falsely implies that frequent ear infections in small children are unusual only if something else is wrong. Choice B is incorrect as checking the immune system is not typically the first step in addressing recurrent ear infections. Choice C is incorrect as cerumen (earwax) does not directly contribute to ear infections in the middle ear.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.

Question 6 of 9

A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is assessing a patient's eyes for the accommodation response and would expect to see:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: convergence of the axes of the eyes. During the accommodation response, the eyes converge to focus on a near object. This is necessary to maintain clear vision when looking at close objects. Dilation of the pupils (A) is not part of the accommodation response. A consensual light reflex (B) refers to both pupils constricting simultaneously in response to light, not specific to accommodation. Conjugate movement of the eyes (C) refers to both eyes moving together in the same direction, which is not the primary action during accommodation.

Question 8 of 9

A patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The nurse suspects:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: damage to the trigeminal nerve. Trigeminal nerve damage can result in the inability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations on the face. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain. Bell's palsy (choice A) affects facial muscles, not sensory perception. Frostbite (choice C) typically causes numbness rather than loss of sensation discrimination. Scleroderma (choice D) is a connective tissue disorder that does not directly affect sensory perception on the face.

Question 9 of 9

A 19-year-old community college student is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache he describes as"like nothing I've ever had before." His temperature is 40°C, and his neck is stiff. What do these signs and symptoms suggest?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The signs and symptoms - severe headache, high fever, and neck stiffness - in a young adult point towards meningeal inflammation. The combination of these symptoms is indicative of a potential infection or inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The presence of fever and neck stiffness, in addition to the severe headache, raises concern for meningitis, an infection of the meninges. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Head injury usually presents with a history of trauma, which is not mentioned in the scenario. B: Cluster headaches typically do not present with fever and neck stiffness. C: Migraine headaches do not typically cause such high fever and neck stiffness.

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