Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?- Nurselytic

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?

A. The presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum B. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass C. A positive transillumination test D. Normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific

Question 2 of 5

Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?

A. Tell him that he has a very promising career in anything he chooses and soon he will feel better. B. Tell him that he needs an antidepressant and it will take about 4 weeks to work. C. Speak with his mother about getting him together more with his friends. D. Assess his suicide risk.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial to assess Adam's suicide risk immediately due to the statements he made about it being better if he were not here. This indicates possible suicidal ideation, which requires urgent attention and intervention. Asking directly about suicidal thoughts and intentions can help determine the level of risk and ensure that appropriate support and resources are provided to Adam. It is important to take any mention of suicide seriously and prioritize the safety and well-being of the individual in such situations.

Question 3 of 5

Mark is a contractor who recently injured his back. He was told he had a "bulging disc" to account for the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop. The vertebral bodies of the spine involve which type of joint?

A. Synovial B. Cartilaginous C. Fibrous D. Synostosis

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The vertebral bodies of the spine involve cartilaginous joints. Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage, which allows for slight movement and flexibility. In the spine, the cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies are called intervertebral discs. These discs act as shock absorbers and provide cushioning between each vertebra, helping to prevent bone-on-bone contact. In Mark's case, the presence of a bulging disc suggests that there is an issue with the cartilaginous joint between his vertebral bodies, leading to the compression of a spinal nerve and causing the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?

A. Scotomas B. Tinnitus C. Dysphagia D. Rhinorrhea

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Scotomas refer to areas of partial alteration in the field of vision. These blind spots can be caused by various eye conditions such as glaucoma, retinal detachment, or optic nerve damage. Symptoms involving the eye like scotomas are important to recognize and address promptly to prevent potential vision loss or other complications. Tinnitus (choice B) refers to ringing in the ears, dysphagia (choice C) refers to difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea (choice D) refers to a runny nose, none of which are symptoms involving the eye.

Question 5 of 5

A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?

A. Anal fissure B. External hemorrhoids C. Internal hemorrhoids D. Anorectal fistula

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.

Similar Questions

A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?

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Nurselytic

ATI RN