ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific
Question 2 of 9
A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending. What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and signs is acute diverticulitis. His presentation of abdominal pain, constipation, and low-grade fever, along with tenderness over the left lower quadrant, is consistent with diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. The history of recent onset of symptoms after consuming popcorn, typically a high-fiber food that can exacerbate diverticulitis, further supports this diagnosis. The negative fecal occult blood test makes more acute intra-abdominal processes like acute appendicitis less likely. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain, and mesenteric ischemia typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, as well as signs of abdominal distress.
Question 3 of 9
A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.
Question 4 of 9
You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to abnormal bleeding between menstrual periods. This can manifest as spotting or heavier bleeding outside of the regular menstrual cycle. It is important to differentiate metrorrhagia from other types of abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia (excessive flow), oligomenorrhea (infrequent bleeding), and polymenorrhea (fewer than 21 days between menses) in order to address and diagnose the underlying cause accurately.
Question 6 of 9
Mark is a contractor who recently injured his back. He was told he had a "bulging disc" to account for the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop. The vertebral bodies of the spine involve which type of joint?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vertebral bodies of the spine involve cartilaginous joints. Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage, which allows for slight movement and flexibility. In the spine, the cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies are called intervertebral discs. These discs act as shock absorbers and provide cushioning between each vertebra, helping to prevent bone-on-bone contact. In Mark's case, the presence of a bulging disc suggests that there is an issue with the cartilaginous joint between his vertebral bodies, leading to the compression of a spinal nerve and causing the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic regions can be responsible for a cough?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cough can be attributed to various anatomic regions. Cardiac conditions, such as heart failure or fluid overload, can lead to congestion in the lungs and irritation of the airway, resulting in a cough. Ophthalmologic, auditory, and endocrine regions are less commonly associated with causing a cough.
Question 8 of 9
Which is true of splitting of the second heart sound?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Splitting of the second heart sound is when the aortic and pulmonic valves close at slightly different times, resulting in two distinct components to the sound. This split is best heard over the apex of the heart, typically with the diaphragm of the stethoscope. The aortic component is heard first and represents closure of the aortic valve, followed by the pulmonic component, representing closure of the pulmonic valve. The split can narrow during inspiration and widen during expiration, which is important to keep in mind during assessment.
Question 9 of 9
Phil comes to your office with left "shoulder pain." You find that the pain is markedly worse when his left arm is drawn across his chest (adduction). Which of the following would you suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of pain that is markedly worse when the left arm is drawn across the chest (adduction) is characteristic of a rotator cuff tear. This is because when the arm is adducted, it puts stress on the torn rotator cuff tendons, causing pain. In contrast, subacromial bursitis typically presents with pain during overhead movements, acromioclavicular joint involvement may present with pain localized to the joint itself, and adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) typically presents with pain and stiffness that worsens with all movements.