ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific
Question 2 of 9
A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease (PVD). CAD is a condition where plaque builds up in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis. Similarly, in PVD, atherosclerosis occurs in the peripheral arteries, affecting blood flow to the extremities, most commonly the legs. Individuals with CAD often have systemic atherosclerosis, which puts them at higher risk for developing PVD. Therefore, it is important for the 72-year-old teacher with CAD to be aware of this risk factor for PVD and consider appropriate screening and preventive measures.
Question 3 of 9
A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about 3 days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, 3 days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over 50 years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending. What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and signs is acute diverticulitis. His presentation of abdominal pain, constipation, and low-grade fever, along with tenderness over the left lower quadrant, is consistent with diverticulitis, which is inflammation or infection of small pouches (diverticula) that can develop in the colon. The history of recent onset of symptoms after consuming popcorn, typically a high-fiber food that can exacerbate diverticulitis, further supports this diagnosis. The negative fecal occult blood test makes more acute intra-abdominal processes like acute appendicitis less likely. Acute cholecystitis would present with right upper quadrant pain, and mesenteric ischemia typically presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, as well as signs of abdominal distress.
Question 4 of 9
His head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. There are some crackles in the bases of each lung. During his cardiac examination there is an extra heart sound. Visualization of his penis shows an uncircumcised prepuce but no lesions or masses. Palpation of his scrotum shows generalized swelling, with no discrete masses. A gloved finger is placed through each inguinal ring, and with bearing down there are no bulges. The prostate is smooth and nontender. What abnormality of the scrotum is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scrotal edema refers to swelling of the scrotum, which can be caused by various reasons such as infection, inflammation, trauma, or fluid collection. In this case, the examination findings of generalized swelling of the scrotum with no discrete masses or bulges on palpation suggest scrotal edema as the most likely diagnosis. The absence of bulges when a finger is placed through the inguinal rings with bearing down rules out a scrotal hernia. Hydrocele typically presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, but there are no specific findings mentioned in the scenario to suggest a hydrocele. Varicocele involves dilated veins in the scrotum and may present as a soft lump that feels like a "bag of worms," which is not described in the examination findings provided.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to abnormal bleeding between menstrual periods. This can manifest as spotting or heavier bleeding outside of the regular menstrual cycle. It is important to differentiate metrorrhagia from other types of abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia (excessive flow), oligomenorrhea (infrequent bleeding), and polymenorrhea (fewer than 21 days between menses) in order to address and diagnose the underlying cause accurately.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scotomas refer to areas of partial alteration in the field of vision. These blind spots can be caused by various eye conditions such as glaucoma, retinal detachment, or optic nerve damage. Symptoms involving the eye like scotomas are important to recognize and address promptly to prevent potential vision loss or other complications. Tinnitus (choice B) refers to ringing in the ears, dysphagia (choice C) refers to difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea (choice D) refers to a runny nose, none of which are symptoms involving the eye.
Question 7 of 9
Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is crucial to assess Adam's suicide risk immediately due to the statements he made about it being better if he were not here. This indicates possible suicidal ideation, which requires urgent attention and intervention. Asking directly about suicidal thoughts and intentions can help determine the level of risk and ensure that appropriate support and resources are provided to Adam. It is important to take any mention of suicide seriously and prioritize the safety and well-being of the individual in such situations.
Question 8 of 9
Despite having high BP readings in the office, Mr. Kelly tells you that his readings at home are much lower. He checks them twice a day at the same time of day and has kept a log. How do you respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. Kelly's scenario is consistent with the phenomenon called "white coat hypertension," where an individual's blood pressure readings are elevated in a medical setting due to anxiety or stress, but are normal when measured at home. This discrepancy between office and home readings is a key indicator of white coat hypertension. Additionally, the fact that Mr. Kelly has been consistently monitoring his blood pressure at home and has kept a log supports the likelihood that his elevated readings in the office are primarily due to the stress of being in that environment. It is important to acknowledge white coat hypertension as a common occurrence and not necessarily a reflection of true high blood pressure that requires immediate medical intervention.
Question 9 of 9
You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.