Which of the following would be your most appropriate action after the administration of 1mg of atropine fails to increase the heart rate of your symptomatic bradycardic patient's heart rate and cardiac output?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Transcutaneous pacing (TCP) Rationale: 1. Atropine failed to increase heart rate, indicating the need for immediate intervention. 2. Transcutaneous pacing is the next step to externally pace the heart and increase heart rate. 3. Synchronized cardioversion (B) is for unstable patients with specific arrhythmias, not for bradycardia. 4. Repeating atropine (C) may not be effective and delays necessary intervention. 5. Epinephrine (D) is typically used in cardiac arrest, not first-line for symptomatic bradycardia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Rule of Nines is a method used to estimate the extent of burns on the body. For infants, the head is proportionally larger compared to adults, making up a greater percentage of the total body surface area. Therefore, when applying the Rule of Nines to infants, a larger proportion of the total body surface area is assigned to the head. This is crucial for accurate assessment and treatment of burns in infants. Choice A is incorrect as the Rule of Nines is a standard method for estimating burns. Choice B is incorrect as it is not specific to the Rule of Nines application in infants. Choice D is incorrect as the legs are not proportionally larger in infants compared to adults.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Cerebral edema increases intracranial pressure. Hypercarbia causes cerebral vasodilatation, worsening edema and increasing intracranial pressure. This can lead to further brain damage and neurological deterioration. Therefore, avoiding hypercarbia is crucial in managing cerebral edema. Summary: A: Metabolic acidosis is not directly related to hypercarbia in this context. B: Respiratory acidosis can occur with hypercarbia but is not the primary concern in cerebral edema. D: Neurogenic pulmonary edema is a potential complication of cerebral edema but is not directly caused by hypercarbia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a patient with altered consciousness and head trauma, CT scanning is crucial to assess for any intracranial injuries that may require immediate intervention. This helps in guiding further management and determining the severity of the head injury. Option A is incorrect as hyperoxia is actually beneficial in traumatic brain injury. Option C is premature without a proper assessment. Option D is not definitive based solely on the GCS score.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because hypertension following a head injury may indicate imminent herniation from critically high intracranial pressure. This is a medical emergency as increased blood pressure can lead to further brain damage and potential herniation. Treating the hypertension is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect as treating hypertension in this case is not primarily aimed at reducing intracranial pressure, but rather preventing herniation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the acute situation of hypertension post-head injury. Choice D is incorrect as mannitol administration may not always be the first-line treatment for hypertension in this context.